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Neighbours and kerb appeal.
Comments
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But surely OP has already strayed into needing to disclose on the Property Information Form, after objecting to planning?
"Does the seller know of anything which might lead to a dispute about the property or a property nearby?"
Obviously, yes!0 -
Again - thanks all.
You mean this, I have spoken :
TA6 Law Society property information form (3rd edition) (PDF 375kb)
Your view is that objecting to a neighbour's planning application qualifies and must be disclosed at Q 2.2?0 -
I would expect it to be addressed under Section 3 - Notices and Proposals.Your view is that objecting to a neighbour's planning application qualifies and must be disclosed at Q 2.2?
Section 2 - Disputes and complaints is not really relevant to planning permission issues. There is a defined process for planning and objecting is a legal right, not a dispute or a complaint.You might as well ask the Wizard of Oz to give you a big number as pay a Credit Referencing Agency for a so-called 'credit-score'0 -
If the current twice amended application "dies" of non-determination without an appeal from the applicant - can I legitimately leave it out of the TA6 reckoning ?
The comments on Public Access seem to disappear at some point after determination - but would a conveyancing search find my objection?0 -
I_have_spoken wrote: »But surely OP has already strayed into needing to disclose on the Property Information Form, after objecting to planning?
"Does the seller know of anything which might lead to a dispute about the property or a property nearby?"
Obviously, yes!
I would tick "no" to that question in those circumstances personally.
It's only temporary in nature and only seems to be directed at O.P. and presumably this neighbour wouldn't be doing this to the next owner of the house.
Someone on here told me recently that their solicitor said that its only a "dispute" if both sides are arguing. If one side is saying nothing and doing nothing then it doesn't count as a "dispute" because its one-sided iyswim.
From this, I took it that if Neighbour A has created a problem and Neighbour B is asking them to deal with the problem that there is no "dispute" legally if Neighbour A just carries right on in there with creating the problem situation, but isn't making any replies at all to Neighbour B's requests to deal with the problem. If Neighbour A was publicly "effing and blinding" in response to Neighbour B's requests then it would be two-sided and a "dispute".
That was my understanding of what this posters solicitor told them anyway.0
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