Faulty item bought over 1 year ago

unholyangel

SuperHan wrote: »

Did you pay by card or by cash originally? It may be worth just sending the receipt to the new owner, and let them deal with the problem. If they want to claim under manufacturer warranty, then the receipt should be enough proof of purchase.

If you paid cash, then it'll probably be enough to claim under SoGA too (although technically, by the letter of the law, the contract is between you and the retailer, but in a cash payment, it's nigh on impossible to determine who "you" are). To claim under SoGA though, the owner may need to pay for an independent report to say that the fault is inherent before the retailer will act. Within a year, a lot of retailers will give a goodwill gesture and just repair/replace/refund, but be aware that a report *may* be required.

If you paid card, I don't really have any advice, than the above... Other than sending the receipt and telling the new owner to tell the retailer that they don't have that card any more as they lost it? (A bit dodgy, but a remedy all the same...)

Was over a year ago so warranty has ran out. OP said they paid £15 for it. Say the life expectancy is only 2 years......given refunds are not always linear, that could leave OP with a "high" offer for £5 refund.

All that legwork for possibly just £5? I wouldnt bother. I'd certainly write to them, explain the circumstances (bought a year ago but never used, only recently discovered its faulty) and see if they offer anything without hassle. But if the retailer isnt forthcoming, I'd personally just write it off.

SuperHan

Misread the year part... But still easier to send receipt to buyer than pay for return shipping and have the retailer refuse.

unholyangel

SuperHan wrote: »

Misread the year part... But still easier to send receipt to buyer than pay for return shipping and have the retailer refuse.

Well no. Because even with the receipt, the retailer can choose a partial refund. And then that person would also a) have to lie (given there is no contract between morrisons and themselves) and b) possibly have to prove the fault is inherent and c) still end up with no working item thus still placing the OP in "breach".

Easier in theory yes. But once you take into account the circumstances, it has potential for way more problems.