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FTB, UK national but had some time nonresident

Hi, long time lurker first time poster, as they say.

I'm resident in the UK, been working here all my life except for 18 months when I was working in the channel islands; came back towards the end of last year. I've been with the same company for 5 years but had a period where I worked out of the CI office so was not a UK/EU resident for that time.

We're looking to borrow in the region of 600k as FTBs, on top of a 140-150k deposit, to buy somewhere for around 700-750k at an 80% LTV. Joint salaries around 180, so a 600 mortgage is 3.33x.

I presume the LTV and multiple are not too outrageous for buying in London, but am concerned by the fact than mortgage companies - at least the general comparison sites - assume you to have been UK/EU resident for the last 3 years (or maybe some are less, Aldermore mention 2 years on their website but also that they would only lend 400k at the 80% LTV we have).

My current salary can be proved by payslips since April or a letter from employer, but the P60 only has 3-4 months salary on it, as I only came back towards the end of the 2011/2012 UK tax year. My partner has always been UK resident but that salary is the smaller of the two.

My credit history shows the links to my overseas address from the various UK credit cards I kept on while living over there, so there are no gaps in history although obviously there's a gap on the UK electoral roll until I got round to going back on it 6 mths or so ago. And a few missed cc payments a few years back, though never over the 1 mth overdue.

I expect the broker community will say "this is nothing a good broker couldn't place for you", but looking around I've seen some that specialise in adverse mortgages charge higher fees than the mainstream ones. A percent fee on a 500-600k loan is serious money. Ideally I'd like to have my cake and eat it so I was toying with the idea of applying directly to a lender who was less strict on residence issues, if anyone knows of one, and if knocked back, we only have one search on file and would then employ a broker.

Or is this a fuss over nothing and an underwriter will wave the residency issue through as long as we pass the initial screening for an AIP/DIP so that it gets as far as a real application?

Thanks for reading I know this is a bit long for a first post but otherwise I'd get told off for not giving enough info...
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