We’d like to remind Forumites to please avoid political debate on the Forum.
This is to keep it a safe and useful space for MoneySaving discussions. Threads that are – or become – political in nature may be removed in line with the Forum’s rules. Thank you for your understanding.
PLEASE READ BEFORE POSTING: Hello Forumites! In order to help keep the Forum a useful, safe and friendly place for our users, discussions around non-MoneySaving matters are not permitted per the Forum rules. While we understand that mentioning house prices may sometimes be relevant to a user's specific MoneySaving situation, we ask that you please avoid veering into broad, general debates about the market, the economy and politics, as these can unfortunately lead to abusive or hateful behaviour. Threads that are found to have derailed into wider discussions may be removed. Users who repeatedly disregard this may have their Forum account banned. Please also avoid posting personally identifiable information, including links to your own online property listing which may reveal your address. Thank you for your understanding.
📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!
Victorian building...sub sale!

london-dog
Posts: 40 Forumite

Hi all
I've just been posting on my potential purchase of a Victorian maisonette in London, re whether to acquire share of freehold. But the plot thickens...
Looking at the legal docs, it's a sub sale. The vendor doesn't actually own the title: he's exchanged on the building but has yet to complete.
This may scupper my ability to get a mortgage right?
On his contract for sale with the 'previous' owners, there is a 6 week completion date window: 'no sooner than x and no later than y'. Yet these exact same completion dates are stipulated to me, were I to buy the flat leasehold from him! Both also mention a potential sudden 'notice to complete' of 5 days.
Why would a vendor do all this...to swerve stamp duty, or because he doesn't hold the cash to complete himself?
Ta
I've just been posting on my potential purchase of a Victorian maisonette in London, re whether to acquire share of freehold. But the plot thickens...
Looking at the legal docs, it's a sub sale. The vendor doesn't actually own the title: he's exchanged on the building but has yet to complete.
This may scupper my ability to get a mortgage right?
On his contract for sale with the 'previous' owners, there is a 6 week completion date window: 'no sooner than x and no later than y'. Yet these exact same completion dates are stipulated to me, were I to buy the flat leasehold from him! Both also mention a potential sudden 'notice to complete' of 5 days.
Why would a vendor do all this...to swerve stamp duty, or because he doesn't hold the cash to complete himself?
Ta
0
Comments
-
Bump...looks like an established practice, this sub selling...been doing some research. Anyone have any experience and know the pitfalls?
I'm considering a bridging loan to make it happen... And then mortgage down the line once I've actually owned it 3 months (apparently most mortgage companies want six months but northern rock can do 3)0
This discussion has been closed.
Confirm your email address to Create Threads and Reply

Categories
- All Categories
- 352.1K Banking & Borrowing
- 253.5K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
- 454.2K Spending & Discounts
- 245.1K Work, Benefits & Business
- 600.7K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
- 177.5K Life & Family
- 258.9K Travel & Transport
- 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
- 16.2K Discuss & Feedback
- 37.6K Read-Only Boards