Spectacles and prescriptions

LincolnshireYokel

My wife broke her glasses, so she went back to Boots, where she had them tested four years ago, to have a new pair made to the same presciption

The bint behind the counter told her it was illegal for them to sell her a pair of glasses on a four year old prescription, and she had to pay for a new eye test.

I don't believe this, does anyone know if this is correct, or a load of rubbish?

tidus

Incorrect, it is not "illegal" to use an old precription for spectacles. It may well be against their company policy, but that's not quite the same thing.

Usually we will do it, provided the person understands that we can't guarantee that the presciption is still 100% correct and that they are happy to go against our recommendation to have an examination in their own interests.

LincolnshireYokel

Thanks, I suspected as much. I would have guessed it was entirely up to the consumer if they want glasses on an old prescription, if those glasses are comfortable and work ok. It was just rubbish to get us to pay for another eye test she doesn't want.

I surprised at Boots coming out with such crap.

Dunroamin

Maybe you annoyed her by calling her a "bint"?

LincolnshireYokel

Dunroamin wrote: »

Maybe you annoyed her by calling her a "bint"?

I wasnt there at the time.

'binti' is from Arabic بنت, meaning 'daughter' :cool:

Hintza

LincolnshireYokel wrote: »

I would have guessed it was entirely up to the consumer if they want glasses on an old prescription, if those glasses are comfortable and work ok. .

It would also be entirely acceptable for the company to refuse to this on an old prescription. If they supplied to an old one I suspect they would be liable if problems occurred later on .

Dunroamin

LincolnshireYokel wrote: »

I wasnt there at the time.

'binti' is from Arabic بنت, meaning 'daughter' :cool:

The "n word" comes from the Spanish for black; it doesn't mean it's acceptable to call someone it!

wealdroam

LincolnshireYokel wrote: »

I wasnt there at the time.

'binti' is from Arabic بنت, meaning 'daughter' :cool:

Was the lady arabic?

I guess you don't know that, as you weren't there at the time.

baza52

more to the point, was the prescription the same as 4 years ago.

neilmcl

If you don't have an eye test at least once every 2 years then an optician is legally entitled to withhold your prescription. Perhaps this is what the women meant.

Oliver14

Dunroamin wrote: »

The "n word" comes from the Spanish for black; it doesn't mean it's acceptable to call someone it!

It also comes from the Latin 'niger' which means black