We’d like to remind Forumites to please avoid political debate on the Forum.

This is to keep it a safe and useful space for MoneySaving discussions. Threads that are – or become – political in nature may be removed in line with the Forum’s rules. Thank you for your understanding.

PLEASE READ BEFORE POSTING: Hello Forumites! In order to help keep the Forum a useful, safe and friendly place for our users, discussions around non-MoneySaving matters are not permitted per the Forum rules. While we understand that mentioning house prices may sometimes be relevant to a user's specific MoneySaving situation, we ask that you please avoid veering into broad, general debates about the market, the economy and politics, as these can unfortunately lead to abusive or hateful behaviour. Threads that are found to have derailed into wider discussions may be removed. Users who repeatedly disregard this may have their Forum account banned. Please also avoid posting personally identifiable information, including links to your own online property listing which may reveal your address. Thank you for your understanding.
📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!
The Forum now has a brand new text editor, adding a bunch of handy features to use when creating posts. Read more in our how-to guide

Calling all Estate Agents!

If there are any estate agents here, I'd be grateful for some advise on an issue I have with a house I'm purchasing!

The house particulars say it has around 2 acres (STS) of garden and we have made an offer on that basis. However, after getting a copy of the title plan, we have discoverd that it only has 1.29 acres, which is a substantial difference of almost 3/4 acres. Bearing this in mind, if the estate agent had known originally that the land was not 2 acres, and only 1.29, what would/should have been the difference in the original valuation, and (more importantly!), what money should we expect to be reasonably taken off our offer price to reflect the difference in the plot sizes? I know this is hard because it will vary from place to place, but any thoughts will be gratefully received!

Comments

  • Mutton_Geoff
    Mutton_Geoff Posts: 4,081 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 1,000 Posts Name Dropper Photogenic
    The agent is guilty of just being an agent I guess. They wrote STS (subject to survey) after their "estimate" and no doubt their contract and the property particulars contained some words like "does not constitute or form any part of an offer or any contract and none is to be relied upon as statements of representation or fact".

    Your post reminded me of a property I saw advertised here .. the opening text says "Ottershaw £950,000. Approaching 5 acres this contemporary style home enjoys a semi rural lifestyle ..." and in the body of the description "..nestling in secluded grounds of approximately 3.65 acres .."

    They can't even make their minds up in the description and I've seen enough agents measure rooms into wardrobes/alcoves then round up the numbers to know that it is only your own survey and measurements that tell the truth.

    Trust nothing written on the sales particulars, do as the agent suggests in their small print and verify everything for yourself. As for liability, no chance, they'll just point to their clauses.
    Signature on holiday for two weeks
  • I'm an Estate Agent/Valuer with 20 years experience. In theory, because it said 'around' 2 acres 'subject to survey' you wouldn't have any grounds to say that the description was inaccurate even though the difference in size is quite substantial. But that doesn't mean that it wouldn't be worthwhile reducing your offer on that basis. It could be argued that you made your original offer based on the amount of land that you actually saw, regardless of what was said in the details. I couldn't give much advice on how to price the 'missing' three quarters of an acre because so much depends on what type of land it is and where. For instance, if it was beautifully landscaped gardens then that amount would add quite a lot of extra amenity value. If it was just rough scrubland or grazing land then it wouldn't be worth much more than arable value. It would be worth you finding out what the local value is per acre for both amenity land and arable land and then reduce your offer accordingly. But, as I've already said, the vendor might refuse and say that you based your original offer on the amount of land you saw.
    Hope this has been of some help.
  • PoorDave
    PoorDave Posts: 952 Forumite
    500 Posts
    This does not thelp the OP, but...

    My current favourite is when you look at the floorplans the agent has put together, then look at the pics of the outside of the house, to find there's no way the two can possibly go together! Bits sticking out where there aren't any etc.
    Annual income twenty pounds, annual expenditure nineteen nineteen and six, result happiness. Annual income twenty pounds, annual expenditure twenty pounds ought and six, result misery
  • Under the Property Misdescriptions Act 1991, estate agents have a strict liability for providing accurate information - disclaimer clauses have no effect at law so can be ignored if the details are misleading.

    The agent can be reported to Trading Standards or the OFT for a misdescription offence - this doesn't provide a civil action, but could be used for future civil compensation cases if the agent is fined under the law.

    In this case where the area was not properly measured, it is probably a question of degree - if you bought the property under the impression that it was around 2 acres and then found it was only 1.29, that might be a significantly large enough error for the agents "STS" to be regarded as misleading - clearly the original statement should be near enough and most reasonable people would not regard an error of more than 10-15% to be acceptable when providing measurements.

    It is irrelevant anyway here as the property has not been purchased so there is no 'loss' arising. You probably think it pointless to report the agent and indeed for your purpose there is nothing to be gained.

    However, you are entitled to revise your offer for ANY reason you like at any time up until exchange of contracts as nothing is binding until that point. So as you now find that the particulars are significantly inaccurate, this would definitely give good reason to adjust your earlier offer subject to whether the price is currently reasonable or not - your agent's vendor will probably give them grief over any 'loss' they make by you reducing your previous offer because of the agents inaccurate particulars and this should be satisfaction enough.
This discussion has been closed.
Meet your Ambassadors

🚀 Getting Started

Hi new member!

Our Getting Started Guide will help you get the most out of the Forum

Categories

  • All Categories
  • 354.4K Banking & Borrowing
  • 254.4K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
  • 455.4K Spending & Discounts
  • 247.3K Work, Benefits & Business
  • 604.1K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
  • 178.4K Life & Family
  • 261.6K Travel & Transport
  • 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
  • 16K Discuss & Feedback
  • 37.7K Read-Only Boards

Is this how you want to be seen?

We see you are using a default avatar. It takes only a few seconds to pick a picture.