Can I get my tax back?

daj7

Hi, I'm a little confused..

I started working full-time in November, and have obviously been paying tax. I was wondering if I was entitled to claim it back (and if so, how I would go about doing it), as I have not yet earned the yearly tax free allowance.

Any help/guidance would be greatly appreciated,

Dan

ncthomas1

Depends what tax code you are on?
Look at your payslip
If you have a code of 657L on there, then you are already correct
PAYE works over the 52 weeks, and the code is understood on the payroll from when it starts. i.e. It KNOWS what the date is when the payslip is run, and applies the correct amount of your tax relevant to that period already
If you are on BR code, then call HMRC and ask them to send a P2 (notice of coding) to your employer to tell them what code to operate.
When that comes through to your payslips, you will get any BR tax straight back in your pay, via your employers.
Hope that helps

ncthomas1

Sorry may be I should have explained, that even if you have not hit your personal allowance, the payroll will KNOW if you are due to, before April 11.
Basically, if you think about it, when everyone who is employed starts the new tax year, lets say in April 10, none of then (Unless they earn mega good money!) hit the personal allowances in that month, but still get taxed
Reason for this is, if everyone waited until they hit the 6475 allowance and THEN started paying tax, it would be far more in one go. The idea of PAYE is that the tax that will be due, for the whole year, is split over 52 weeks (If you start in April)
In your case, it will be splitting the 6475 over the number of weeks left in the tax year, from when you started, until April, and working out the tax that way as it goes along
Wow, this is more difficult to explain than I though, I am struggling here

Basically, if you have the correct code on your payslip, then you are paying the correct amount of tax.
If you are really unsure, there is a good link on the site to check your tax code, try that

daj7

Thanks for replying,

I understand what you are saying about how if people were paid their 6475 allowance then taxed it'd be alot in one go (I had the same trouble trying to explain that to someone last night). The only reason I am asking about it is that when I get my wages on the 25th of March (I get paid every 4 weeks), I will have earned a total of £5153.40 (before tax). Which is below the 6475 allowance. However I have been taxed. I'm probably not explaining it very well but does that make a bit more sense?

Thanks

Mikeyorks

If you didn't have employment prior to Nov ...... you should have completed a P46? Which box did you tick?

If you did have employment ..... did you hand a P45 to the new employer? If so - what Code number was on it?

daj7

I ticked B on the P46, as I had received Jobseekers allowance for 3 weeks before hand. The job centre told me they would send me a P45 but never did.

Mikeyorks

In which case you will be on emergency code - but non cumulative (647 Month 1). So you will pay tax on everything above £540per month.

That won't change until HMRC issue a cumulative Code number. They may be awaiting the DWP figures? Contact HMRC to find out (get the Ref / Tel from your payroll people?)

ncthomas1

yep Mikeyorks is spot on - if you ticked Box B they should have you on M1
Did you check on your payslip, it should have your code on there, that would help us advise you more