PLEASE READ BEFORE POSTING: Hello Forumites! In order to help keep the Forum a useful, safe and friendly place for our users, discussions around non-MoneySaving matters are not permitted per the Forum rules. While we understand that mentioning house prices may sometimes be relevant to a user's specific MoneySaving situation, we ask that you please avoid veering into broad, general debates about the market, the economy and politics, as these can unfortunately lead to abusive or hateful behaviour. Threads that are found to have derailed into wider discussions may be removed. Users who repeatedly disregard this may have their Forum account banned. Please also avoid posting personally identifiable information, including links to your own online property listing which may reveal your address. Thank you for your understanding.
📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!

Adverse Possession of a basement

124»

Comments

  • You should get your solicitor to check the SPIF - specifically the Arrangements and rights part

    Are there any other formal or informal arrangements which give someone else rights over your property?
    (delete as applicable) no/ yes (please give details)

    Yes, this kind of question should have thrown up an answer of some kind.

    Also most questionnaires also include a section about overriding interests (including the notorious Chancel Repair issue) but another overrding intrerest is:

    "Rights claimed by any people in actual occupation of the property."


    So he should have revealed that some others were in actual occupation of part of the property.

    Also this is a rare case where title guarantee may be relevant. If the transfer was with full title guarantee then the following section of the Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1994 applies:

    3.--(1) If the disposition is expressed to be made with full title guarantee there shall be implied a covenant that the person making the disposition is disposing of the property free--

    (a) from all charges and incumbrances (whether monetary or not) and

    (b) from all other rights exercisable by third parties


    It seems unlikely that he could wriggle out of all these points.

    You may well have a case against the seller if he acquiesced in the neighbour's use of the cellar. If he can prove that they only used it with his permission then let him produce the proof, but he would probably still be liable to you for the cost of removing them.

    Problem is that if you go to court he may have no assets upon which you can fix a judgement for your loss.
    RICHARD WEBSTER

    As a retired conveyancing solicitor I believe the information given in the post to be useful assuming any properties concerned are in England/Wales but I accept no liability for it.
This discussion has been closed.
Meet your Ambassadors

🚀 Getting Started

Hi new member!

Our Getting Started Guide will help you get the most out of the Forum

Categories

  • All Categories
  • 351.2K Banking & Borrowing
  • 253.2K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
  • 453.7K Spending & Discounts
  • 244.2K Work, Benefits & Business
  • 599.3K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
  • 177.1K Life & Family
  • 257.7K Travel & Transport
  • 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
  • 16.2K Discuss & Feedback
  • 37.6K Read-Only Boards

Is this how you want to be seen?

We see you are using a default avatar. It takes only a few seconds to pick a picture.