Strange one - Stepmother Selling House (Dad deceased..)

sonastin

For your wife (and family) to be entitled to a share, they would have had to purchase the house as Tenants in Common and then her father would have had to put in his will that his share (or part of it) was going to go to your wife/family. Under any other arrangement, the house belongs entirely to the new wife.

Same as princeofpounds, I think that wills/lack of become publicly available at some point in the probate process but I'm not sure how you'd find out. The local probate office might be a good starting point to ask the question though...

geoffky

Drug her and then get her to change her will...oh sorry i must of been reading these forums too long..:rotfl::rotfl:

This is a very common thing...your daughters have lost out all because of a small piece of paper...

ViolaLass

geoffky wrote: »

This is a very common thing...your daughters have lost out all because of a small piece of paper...

Or, had there been a piece of paper, they might have gained.

The dad married the woman - one assumes he liked her and might easily have wanted her to have the house and do with it as she pleased given that his children are adults. It seems a bit much to feel hard done by unless the OP was promised something by the dad.

tyllwyd

Don't you know who was the administrator of his estate? It should all have been sorted out at the time.

This is what it says on Wikipedia

"In England and Wales, the rules of succession are the Intestacy Rules set out in the Administration of Estates Act and associated legislation.
The Act sets out the order for distribution of property in the estate of the deceased. For persons with surviving children and a wealth below a certain threshold (£250,000 as from February 2009), the whole of the estate will pass to the deceased's spouse or also, from late 2005, their registered civil partner. For persons with no surviving children but surviving close relatives (such as siblings or parents), the first £450,000 goes to the spouse or civil partner (as from February 2009).[13] Such transfers below the threshold are exempt from UK inheritance tax.


In larger estates, the spouse will not receive the entire estate where the deceased left other blood relatives and left no will. They will receive the following:

• all property passing to them by survivorship (such as the deceased's share in the jointly owned family home);
• all property passing to them under the terms of a trust (such as a life insurance policy);
• a statutory legacy of a fixed sum (being a larger sum where the deceased left no children); and
• a life interest in half of the remaining estate."

So, from that, if the house is only worth £80K, it seems likely that it would have passed to the stepmum. (It seems strange, your post seems to imply that the house was bought for £110K 15 years ago, so surely it would be worth more than that now?)