Do I get consent to let from lender to rent out my house?

leitmotif

I would like to add that my family and I nearly found ourselves homeless as our landlady, who was up for a repossession hearing, had lied to us about having CTL. I attended her repossession hearing, at which it emerged that she didn't have CTL. This would have meant that we would have been out on the street at very short notice and could well have lost most or all of our stuff to repay her debt. This was highly distressing, particularly as we had asked for confirmation that she had CTL and she had insisted she had. As it happened, she came to an agreement with her lender at that hearing.

Thank goodness for the Mortgage Repossessions Protection of Tenants Etc. Act 2010 coming into force on 1st October this year!

On another note, somebody asked what specific law is being broken if a LL does not have consent to let. Presumably this would be any law that states you must have certain types of insurance if you are letting your property to tenants - insurance you probably won't be able to get without CTL.

wodgerdodger

silvercar wrote: »

Please explain what happens when consent to let (usually granted for a limited time) expires, but there is a tenant in situ?

In our case the Lender merely asked do wish we wish to renew the CTL and pay them another £100 for another year. There were no questions of the rent covering the loan or tenancy details.

We didnt as it happened so not sure if they would have asked for further info.