Has Mum 'dropped me in it' ?

gravitytolls

I believe you can declare your interest with no financial effect on you, as you do not benefit from it.

A friend is co owner of a property following seperation. Unable to sell, it is rented out, the rent covers the mortgage, there is no financial gain, she still received full benefits.

Mojisola

alfarich156 wrote: »

My mother, who lives alone is in her mid/late 60's has an agreement I signed a few years ago whereby I am down on paper as being a co owner of her (paid for) house. What concerns me is since I'd signed the agreement, I'm disabled myself as she is and I've been claiming incapacity benefit, housing and council tax benefit and dla. Obviously there is a box to tick if you have a property or an interest in one and I've never declared it as it is not like it is an asset I can get any benefit from. Aparently it was done to prevent her having to sell her house when she needs to go into a residential home...
I'm concerned I could be convicted for fraud, fined, jailed..whatever. What would you do? I've thought of having the agreement revoked and my name removed, but this was also done to protect my inheritance (I am the sole heir to my mothers estate) and my mothers mental health and faculty is starting to 'go down hill' of late..
Many thanks in advance, Cheers Rich

I still don't think it would have affected a benefit claim because there is no way you could have sold the property to get your share but it should have been declared.

When you talk to advisors about this, don't say it was done in order to deliberately deprive your mother of assets! As I see it, the plan hasn't worked because, if your mother gets put into a taxpayer-funded home and the house isn't sold until she dies, you will inherit the whole of the house and then lose all your benefits. If the house is sold when she needs care, then her half will go to funding her care home and you will still lose your benefits because you will then have the money. At least that way, your mother will have a choice over where she spends her last years.

Mips

Asking out of interest here.

What if the person is an owner occupier living there claiming full benefits.

The house was made into their name a few years ago via the land registry, but there wouldn't have been a change in benefits for them to declare they have an interest in it.

Are they in trouble?

KeithP

Dippychick wrote: »

...but there wouldn't have been a change in benefits for them to declare they have an interest in it.

Are they in trouble?

Surely all these type of things say something to the effect of...

If you circumstances change, you must tell us.

margaretclare

alfarich156 wrote: »

Hi, first post on the site and looking for advice please.

My mother, who lives alone is in her mid/late 60's has an agreement I signed a few years ago whereby I am down on paper as being a co owner of her (paid for) house. What concerns me is since I'd signed the agreement, I'm disabled myself as she is and I've been claiming incapacity benefit, housing and council tax benefit and dla. Obviously there is a box to tick if you have a property or an interest in one and I've never declared it as it is not like it is an asset I can get any benefit from. Apparently it was done to prevent her having to sell her house when she needs to go into a residential home...
I'm concerned I could be convicted for fraud, fined, jailed..whatever. What would you do? I've thought of having the agreement revoked and my name removed, but this was also done to protect my inheritance (I am the sole heir to my mothers estate) and my mother's mental health and faculty is starting to'go down hill' of late..
Many thanks in advance, Cheers Rich

It can only be in recent years - the present century for instance - where the above could have been written. In particular, the concern for preservation of means-tested benefits coincidental with the statement of being the sole heir to an estate.