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Used car breaks down

I bought a 1 year old Mazda 4 years ago. It had 2 years warantee left. Still under Warantee I reported a fault which the dealership could not get to the bottom of. Now out of warantee the fault has got worse and the car now cannot be driven The Mazda garage has now diagnosed the problem and agree that this has been gradually getting worse over a long period as water has been leaking into an electrical part. The repair cost is £2000. The garage has persuaded Mazda manufacturer to pay 1/2. I think they should be paying 100%.
What are my rights here? My understanding of the SAle of Goods act is that I should take this up with the retailer. Unfortunately Brooklyn Mazda went into administration a year or so ago. I am still paying for the car trough a loan they arranged.

Comments

  • unholyangel
    unholyangel Posts: 16,866 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper
    Is it the exactly same fault for sure?

    And originally, the first time it happened, did they agree the fault was inherent?

    I'm not 100% sure if the time passed would affect what action you can take.
    You keep using that word. I do not think it means what you think it means - Inigo Montoya, The Princess Bride
  • Yes the fault caused all the problems over the past 2 years.
  • Googlewhacker
    Googlewhacker Posts: 3,887 Forumite
    Hypat1a wrote: »
    Yes the fault caused all the problems over the past 2 years.

    Can you prove this though? If not their offer sounds good
    The Googlewhacker referance is to Dave Gorman and not to my opinion of the search engine!

    If I give you advice it is only a view and always always take professional advice before acting!!!

    4 people on the ignore list....Bliss!
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