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What's she entitled to?

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Not sure where to post this, but a friend of mine is splitting up with his girlfriend. He has owned his property for 10 years, and she moved in 1 year ago. She has contributed half the monthly payments for that time but did not pay any initial lump sum or anything in. They never got around to signing a living together agreement :(

Would anyone have an idea what, if anything he is obliged to pay her?

Thanks :)
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Comments

  • maninthestreet
    maninthestreet Posts: 16,127 Forumite
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    Duplicate thread.
    "You were only supposed to blow the bl**dy doors off!!"
  • kitschy
    kitschy Posts: 597 Forumite
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    Sorry, I didn't know where to post or that I wasn't allowed to put it on two boards. :o
  • Gwhiz
    Gwhiz Posts: 2,322 Forumite
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    Nothing legally.
  • mlz1413
    mlz1413 Posts: 2,894 Forumite
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    Where the g/f payments specifically to the mortgage company or where they paid to b/f monthly ie like rent or house keeping?

    Did g/f also pay half of food, gas, elec etc?

    Most people expect to contribute to the home they live in so has the g/f actually said she believes she is entitled to a payment due to having contributed for 1 yr?
  • solodanceparty
    Options
    I would assume nothing for the following:

    They aren't married. I assume her name isn't on the lease.

    Talk to CAB, but I'm sure she's not entitled to anything.
  • kitschy
    kitschy Posts: 597 Forumite
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    Her name IS on the mortgage unfortunately, but no dependants. She has also contributed to half of bills such as gas and electric also (but I guess you'd have to do that to live anywhere, partner or none).
  • poppysarah
    poppysarah Posts: 11,522 Forumite
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    kitschy wrote: »
    Her name IS on the mortgage unfortunately, but no dependants. She has also contributed to half of bills such as gas and electric also (but I guess you'd have to do that to live anywhere, partner or none).


    Since when? Since she moved in?
  • theartfullodger
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    In answer to your original question, she is entitled to be treated fairly, decently & with consideration: However when people split up this very rarely happens and legally I think she has few rights (sorry!).

    But re...
    Her name IS on the mortgage
    - she is of course entitled to and will continue to be liable for all payments/debts regarding the mortgage, including if in negative equity, even if not living there..

    Tricky one: Get advice from CaB or if she disnae qualify for free advice go to a solicitor that specialises in this area...

    Cheers!

    Lodger
  • Richard_Webster
    Options
    If her name is on the mortgage then she is a joint owner of the property and if he wants to sell he needs her signature. She will presumably only sign if he pays her an amount that she will accept.

    If she asks for too much it may be worth his while going to court to get it to order the house be sold and only a certain amount or nothing paid to her.

    If he doesn't offer her anything she may not sign unless she is worried about getting a bad credit record if he defaults.

    It costs a few thousand (and more) to go to court over this kind of issue and there is no magic fairy who will appear and wave a wand to make both agree what is fair!
    RICHARD WEBSTER

    As a retired conveyancing solicitor I believe the information given in the post to be useful assuming any properties concerned are in England/Wales but I accept no liability for it.
  • kitschy
    kitschy Posts: 597 Forumite
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    poppysarah wrote: »
    Since when? Since she moved in?

    Yes, just since she moved in.
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