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Consent to Let

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N79
N79 Posts: 2,615 Forumite
in House buying, renting & selling
This is one for MissMoneyPenny (apologies if this is the wrong spelling) and Firefox

Today, for the first time ever, I have been asked by a set of prospective Ts to provide them with evidence that I have "consent to let" the property.

I thought you would be interested to know since you I seem to recall that you have both posted stongly on this subject that this message seem to be sinking through to Ts. I guess this is becuase of the media coverage etc.

Not sure yet how I will reply yet.....
«134

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  • Cannon_Fodder
    Cannon_Fodder Posts: 3,980 Forumite
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    Honestly, hopefully...?!
    ;)
  • N79
    N79 Posts: 2,615 Forumite
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    Cannon_Fodder wrote: »
    Honestly, hopefully...?!
    ;)

    Of course. :D I will offer to write them a letter. I wonder if it will be enough?
  • Fire_Fox
    Fire_Fox Posts: 26,026 Forumite
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    Oh dear am I getting a(nother) reputation ... ? :o To me that might suggest these are tenants that might wish to remain so long term, and have a healthy respect for the law! May I ask why you don't know how you will reply?
    Declutterbug-in-progress.⭐️⭐️⭐️ ⭐️⭐️
  • N79
    N79 Posts: 2,615 Forumite
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    Fire_Fox wrote: »
    Oh dear am I getting a(nother) reputation ... ? :o To me that might suggest these are tenants that might wish to remain so long term, and have a healthy respect for the law! May I ask why you don't know how you will reply?

    I have no problem with the question and I agree that it implies engaged Ts.

    Without going into too many details but basically there there is no mortgage on the properties (but there is a charge) so no need for a consent to let.
  • silvercar
    silvercar Posts: 47,222 Ambassador
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    N79 wrote: »
    I have no problem with the question and I agree that it implies engaged Ts.

    Without going into too many details but basically there there is no mortgage on the properties (but there is a charge) so no need for a consent to let.

    I'm curious on this one. Clearly no mortgage means no consent to let needed. The charge means that on sale the charge holder gets paid out, again no concern for your tenants, but if the charge related to a business and if the business defaulted on payments, could the charge holder go to court to force the sale of the property or repossess? If so that would impact on your tenants, (especially as the charge was in place before the tenancy) so your tenants would want to know that the business is not in difficulty.
    I'm a Forum Ambassador on The Coronavirus Boards as well as the housing, mortgages and student money saving boards. I volunteer to help get your forum questions answered and keep the forum running smoothly. Forum Ambassadors are not moderators and don't read every post. If you spot an illegal or inappropriate post then please report it to forumteam@moneysavingexpert.com (it's not part of my role to deal with this). Any views are mine and not the official line of MoneySavingExpert.com.
  • N79
    N79 Posts: 2,615 Forumite
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    silvercar wrote: »
    I'm curious on this one. Clearly no mortgage means no consent to let needed. The charge means that on sale the charge holder gets paid out, again no concern for your tenants, but if the charge related to a business and if the business defaulted on payments, could the charge holder go to court to force the sale of the property or repossess? If so that would impact on your tenants, (especially as the charge was in place before the tenancy) so your tenants would want to know that the business is not in difficulty.

    True, except that I own 100% of the shares in both the company which owns the property and the company that holds the charge. Like I said a complex situation where explaining to the Ts why there is no need for a "consent to let" is not straight forward.
  • 456789
    456789 Posts: 2,305 Forumite
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    Just write them a letter
  • Thrugelmir
    Thrugelmir Posts: 89,546 Forumite
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    N79 wrote: »
    True, except that I own 100% of the shares in both the company which owns the property and the company that holds the charge. Like I said a complex situation where explaining to the Ts why there is no need for a "consent to let" is not straight forward.


    So the Company should be letting the property not you personally.

    A letter stating that there is no mortgage on the property should normally suffice.

    Though what's the purpose of the charge? Presumably to secure a debt. So a little more than you've said so far.
  • N79
    N79 Posts: 2,615 Forumite
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    Thrugelmir wrote: »
    So the Company should be letting the property not you personally.

    A letter stating that there is no mortgage on the property should normally suffice.

    Though what's the purpose of the charge? Presumably to secure a debt. So a little more than you've said so far.

    Of course the company is the LL.
  • silvercar
    silvercar Posts: 47,222 Ambassador
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    As the owner of the company that owns the charge on the property, you can give a letter of consent to the company that owns the property to consent to let. Though this may confuse more than reassure the tenants.
    I'm a Forum Ambassador on The Coronavirus Boards as well as the housing, mortgages and student money saving boards. I volunteer to help get your forum questions answered and keep the forum running smoothly. Forum Ambassadors are not moderators and don't read every post. If you spot an illegal or inappropriate post then please report it to forumteam@moneysavingexpert.com (it's not part of my role to deal with this). Any views are mine and not the official line of MoneySavingExpert.com.
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