DAB radio fault 1 month after guarantee expired

blueflyingtonight

My Goodmans DAB radio has started buzzing like a demented wasp one month after the 12 month guarantee ran out. I took it back to Comet - not interested. Do I have any rights?

Thanks

Steve

scullster

Yup, but it will be up to you prove the fault was inherent and not as a consequence of wear and tear. This will be an independent engineers report or I guess (it is a reasoned guess;)) that if the fault was to be have been experienced by others and have been publically reported on the internet, this possibly could be considered as evidence.

Sales of Goods Act is your statutory friend, possibly the Supply of Goods Act.

If you paid on credit card, Section 75 of the Consumer credit Act may also be worth falling back upon.

If you read up on these, then address a letter to their head office, you'll probably get a repair instigated free gratis, or possibly a replacement if they cant repair it. Full refund - no.

-N34

The EU says you have 2 year guarantee on all bought within the EU. Even after the 1 year guarantee has expired.

yummymummy79

-N34 wrote: »

The EU says you have 2 year guarantee on all bought within the EU. Even after the 1 year guarantee has expired.

PLEASE CAN PEOPLE STOP MIS-QUOTING THIS!! In capitals for a reason!

That is not what it means, can't be bothered to go into exactly what it does mean (yet again!). You have up to 6 years Sale of Goods Act rights against Comet (although they are beyond useless so good luck with that!) but as it is around the year mark then it is prob down to you to have to prove the fault as prev mentioned. You'd prob be looking at repair or discount off a replacement as likely outcomes.

SO THE 2 YEAR EU THING IS TOTALLY IRRELEVANT, just to get the point across!

deanos

http://www.guardian.co.uk/money/2009/may/23/tesco-consumer-guarantee

yummymummy79

Thanks, I did know it's been in the media recently, but shock horror, something in the media that isn't completely true and has been misreported!

Was hoping not to have to bother explaining it but looks like I'll have to:

Europe had rubbish consumer legislation, the UK has had some that's pretty good since 1979. This damned 2 year thing was brought in to try and give the rest of Europe better rights for faulty goods etc BUT as ours was better than that already (we get UP TO 6 years to claim against a retailer) then it wasn't implemented. No point implementing something that is worse than we have already is there?!

So as I said, this wasn't brought into UK law as such, yes the rest of Europe has got it, but we have still got the old faithful Sale of Goods Act as it has been (with some amendedments admittedly) for the last 30 years.

So again, the misreported and misquoted directive (and current bain of my working life) is not relevant.