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Council Tax sole occupant discount removed

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Comments

  • Bogof_Babe
    Bogof_Babe Posts: 10,803 Forumite
    Well yes we do, but as stated earlier in this thread it is occupation of, not ownership of, a property that determines who is liable for the c/tax, and what if any discounts are applicable. As one person can't occupy two properties at the same time it seems unfair that we are paying almost full c/tax on both of them, when if we were two separate individuals not tied by marriage we would get 25% discount on both.

    NB There seems to be a view that if people own two properties they must be filthy rich. This is patently not true (in our case anyway). We needed a base to spend quality time with my very elderly mum before it is too late, and my retired husband has gone back to doing part time work to help fund it.
    :D I haven't bogged off yet, and I ain't no babe :D

  • tbs624
    tbs624 Posts: 10,816 Forumite
    Bogof_Babe wrote: »
    I wonder if our expert could give me their view on this. My husband and I have recently bought a small flat as well as our main house, and at the moment I am spending over half my time in it (in order to see more of my 93 year old mum who lives in the area). We pay full c/tax on our original house, and I get a 10% second home discount on the flat.

    I've been wondering whether it would be allowable to put the house down as my husband's main residence and the flat as mine, thus qualifying for 25% discount on both. It seems logical that as there are only the two of us and two properties we should not have to pay 190% c/tax as we can't be using services in two places at once.

    I suppose if we were separated this would be perfectly okay, but as we are still a couple it is a grey area. Any clarification would be most welcome.
    Not the expert on C/T:smiley: but Councils generally view a couple (whether married or unmarried) as having one main residence, even where each one of the couple may rent or own separate properties. In the case of people who have tried to claim a similar arrangement because of use of another property for work purposes the courts have previously held that the main residence is the one where you "intend to return" & "where you would live if not for the demands of your work", so presumably a similar principle would apply to your situation.

    Council Tax isn't just about those services that we may or may not be personally using is it? Presumably you'd like the roads in the area swept, police to attend a break in, the fire services to attend in the event of your house/flat being on fire etc for both properties?

    If you are struggling with the costs could you not have stayed with your mother when you needed to visit or is she in residential care?
  • Bogof_Babe
    Bogof_Babe Posts: 10,803 Forumite
    Hi tbs, yes I see what you mean. It was only an optimistic idea anyway, I didn't really think we would have a chance. I have no objection to paying full tax on our main property, as we have always done, but as my husband can only manage the odd overnighter in the flat while I am here about half my time I thought it might qualify for the single occupancy tag.

    My mum is in residential care and there are no facilities for overnight guests. I suppose we could have stayed in hotels, but I got exhausted with all the travelling (140 miles each way) and felt the time was right to establish a base here. Anyway we never know when we might have to dash up at short notice, and there is quite a shortage of Travel Lodge type hotels where I am, although loads of B&Bs as it is a holiday resort, but they get booked up well in advance.

    Thanks for your thoughts, much appreciated.

    To the OP - apologies for the threadjack :o.
    :D I haven't bogged off yet, and I ain't no babe :D

  • pinkshoes
    pinkshoes Posts: 20,677 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper Photogenic
    tbs624 wrote: »
    Not the expert on C/T:smiley: but Councils generally view a couple (whether married or unmarried) as having one main residence, even where each one of the couple may rent or own separate properties.

    But given that 1 in 3 marriages (or more???) end in divorce, usually resulting in one of the couple moving out and buying/renting elsewhere, surely the separated (but still married) couple would pay 75% CT each on the house they were living in? Especially if they have kids, and are thus frequently calling round to drop off/pick up kids...

    I don't see why this should be any different, especially as Bogof_babe is actually spending half her time in the flat. If she spent 51%, would it thus become her main residence and not the other house? Like she pointed out, you can only be in one house at any one time!
    Should've = Should HAVE (not 'of')
    Would've = Would HAVE (not 'of')

    No, I am not perfect, but yes I do judge people on their use of basic English language. If you didn't know the above, then learn it! (If English is your second language, then you are forgiven!)
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