Deemed contract terms

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As a lawyer, I've come across numerous instances where gas and electric consumers have seemingly had contracts imposed on them.

The Gas Act and the Utilities Act 2000 provide that an existing supplier shall have the right to continue the supply to a supplied premises when an occupier moves out and another moves in.

It has come to my notice that certain companies, and British Gas being the main offender, are using a set of words to consumers that suggests the supplier is entitled to impose a contract on the consumer at the property. This is not the case. Neither the Gas Act nor the Utilities Act provide for any form of imposed contract, often referred to by suppliers as a "deemed contract" upon the consumer.

In case this information should be relevant to viewers of this forum, I outline here a real case scenario that may help viewers who have had a "deemed contract" imposed on them by the supplier.

Example real life scenario:

A tenant of a property reached an agreement with the landlord that the rent the tenant paid would be inclusive of gas.

Almost 3 years after the tenant moved in, British Gas sent a letter to "The Occupier", stating that urgent contact with British Gas was required to avoid disconnection of supply.

The tenant contacted the phone number on the letter, whereby the call centre operative started to take details of the tenant, his name & address and how long he had been at the property.

A few weeks later the tenant received a bill in his name. The bill included estimated bills for previous periods.

I looked at this case and advised the tenant that as he had not agreed to any terms, or been shown a contract, or been told that it was the supplier's intention to bind the tenant into legal relations, he was not liable to pay any money to the supplier.

Obviously individual cases vary on the respective facts, but what this shows is that consumers are being hoodwinked into continuing supply with an existing supplier without being told of their rights. This applies not only to the right to choose a different supplier but also in relation to the Unfair Terms in Consumer Contracts Regulations. For a contract to be good between the supplier and the consumer, it is imperative that the consumer is informed of all the terms that apply BEFORE the contract can be formed and made good between those parties, and irrespective of any suppliers' claimed rights to continue to supply.

The important point is that a supplier's claimed right to continue supply does not impose any contract terms upon the consumer or create legal relations between those parties. In particular there is no provision for the payment of money, and in such circumstances alone, no money is therefore payable.

Simply speaking, if you have not reached an agreement which sets out terms and specifically your liability to pay for the supply, and you have not responded to or acknowledged any so-called terms, and have not been told you do not have to continue the supply with the supplier, or been told you have a cooling off period (which is statutory), then you have no liability for payment to supplier. The position is similar to unsolicited goods. The risk lies and must remain with those who imprudently supply goods or services without having reached any agreement with the recipient to take or receive those services on the terms that must be made clear BEFORE the supply is made or continued.

Any person who seeks to create a legal relationship with you, must make that clear and where there may be money involved, the terms relating to payment must be clear and must be accepted by you in writing.

I would be interested to know whether any other consumers on this forum have had similar experiences to those several of my Clients have experienced.
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Comments

  • legaleagle_2
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    Distance selling:

    The distance selling regulations may well apply to any case where a consumer has not had a direct contact with the supplier. The definition of distance selling is very wide and includes, phone, doorstep, and by email. In a case where the supplier has had no contact with a consumer before a bill arrives, this may well fall foul of the Distance selling regulations.
  • legaleagle_2
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    Unfair Terms:

    Unfair terms legisilation may well apply in a case where no terms have been agreed prior to supply. In particular, the tariff, penalties or other charges, or even when you should pay. Quite clearly if a tariff has been enforced upon you without your agreement to the terms of that tariff, then that is likely to fall foul of the Unfair Terms in Consumer Contracts Regulations. A term that is not made clear to you before you become legally bound, may be an unfair term simply because you had no choice whether to agree to it or not. A term that is simply not there, has not been told to you or agreed by you in any way, including by conduct, cannot be enforced.
  • Ken68
    Ken68 Posts: 6,825 Forumite
    First Anniversary First Post Energy Saving Champion Home Insurance Hacker!
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    Nonetheless, Legal....if the utility was used, it should be paid for, otherwise the cost is born by other users.
    I rather think a continuous availability of services would benefit all.
  • olly300
    olly300 Posts: 14,736 Forumite
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    http://forums.moneysavingexpert.com/showthread.html?t=489301

    For reasons why this won't stand up in a court of law.

    BTW 3 years is now recognised by Energywatch as too long to chase someone up over a bill whether deemed contract or otherwise.
    I'm not cynical I'm realistic :p

    (If a link I give opens pop ups I won't know I don't use windows)
  • Cardew
    Cardew Posts: 29,041 Forumite
    Name Dropper First Anniversary First Post Rampant Recycler
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    Before anyone takes this thread seriously I would read:

    http://forums.moneysavingexpert.com/showthread.html?t=489301&page=2

    I do not think legaleagle is who he claims to be!
  • Terrylw1
    Terrylw1 Posts: 7,038 Forumite
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    Legalreagle, a few points:

    - the fact that a landlord includes gas in a tenancy agreement thats legally binding between the tenant and the and the landord. So, the landlord should have his/her name on the Supplier's system. This is a third party issue and not the suppliers responsibility. Hence, why did the tenant not refer to the landlord knowing this was in the tenancy agreement? Why did the tenant not tell the Supplier that this was the case hence they would contact the landlord and bill them?

    - It's completely legal as you state at the start of your post that a Supplier continues to charge for energy consumed at a property once an agreement has been put into place. So, why do you not notice that you have highlighted an example that doesn't even compare to this?

    - The registration of a supplier to a MPAN was made the first step in a new supply in July 2000. So, are you stating that Ofgem by imposing this industry change (with the agreement of all Suppliers/Agents & industry bodies) have breached the law?

    BTW - I have dealt with tenants in the same scenario and I advised them to ask their landlord to contact the current suplier to be billed. Upon seeing their tenancy agreement or just by speaking to them and hearing this, I advised them that they had no liability in the matter and that by adding the landlords name to the bill, any debt collection would be on the landlord, not the tenant.

    - "Cooling off period" - the change of supply process applies to the current occupant in the property who authorises the change. Any subsiquent tenant cannot have a "cooling off period" since the contract was made binding prior to their occupancy.

    - Unfair terms. Well you could argue that Ofgem need to go to court then since they set out these industry rules with all parties prior to privatisation. ONLY the current occupant can legally agree to a contract verbal or otherwise for the billing of the property or change of supply. You are implying that upon that occupant leaving, the property becomes void of any supplier. Well, I wonder how much of a disaster that would be for the economy when no Suppliers were paying back to the Distribution companies which in turn pay back to the grid.

    - Back when the industry was privatised any properties not occupied where registered to local PES at the time. This was to allow ALL properties to have a supplier so a new occupant would have someone to at least get a bill from. Are you stating that this action was a breach of law? In which case, it's a bit strange that this happened nationally isn't it? Surely at least 1 lawyer working for Ofgem would have noticed this???

    Maybe in your case the tenant was speaking to an inexperienced person about it at the suppliers end or they did not state this to them, hence they can't be held responsible for doing what they did as it's a standard practice.

    I think if you consider your example again you will realise that the landlord had already agreed to the supplier. The landlord had not acted in setting up the account.

    EVERY supplier works this way because it is the industry rules as agreed by the regulator! Not just BG.

    I would suggest that you need to spend some time reading the regulations set by Ofgem so you understand the industry. If you went down this route with Energywatch, the industry watchdog they would tell you how these points are incorrect.
    :rotfl: It's better to live 1 year as a tiger than a lifetime as a worm...but then, whoever heard of a wormskin rug!!!:rotfl:
  • Ken68
    Ken68 Posts: 6,825 Forumite
    First Anniversary First Post Energy Saving Champion Home Insurance Hacker!
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    A squatters and scroungers charter is not what the industry needs.
    Tho I wouldn't mind seeing some debt collectors/administrators taken to court when harassing genuinely innocent users.
    Down to proving who used the gas or electric and bailiffs don't give a toss as long as they bring in the money.
  • Terrylw1
    Terrylw1 Posts: 7,038 Forumite
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    Hi Ken68, absoluletely but from experience of dealing with debt collectors in the past (in my utility days) they get very frustrated with utility companies selling on incorrect debt to them. Then they go out, the customer says "i've told that company 5 times already and they said it's incorrect and would sort it" and end up calling the utility to then be told "oh yeah, we forgot to recall it!!!"

    So, it's not always their fault, although any underhanded tactics used totally is.

    A lot of the blame tends to lie with utilities not sorting their bills then selling them on. I've seen it loads and used to feel so sorry that people had to go through all that stress just because someone couldn't be bothered to do what they were paid for in the first place.

    Otherwise known as the call centre - back office relationship or maybe - right hand/left syndrome!!!
    :rotfl: It's better to live 1 year as a tiger than a lifetime as a worm...but then, whoever heard of a wormskin rug!!!:rotfl:
  • jackiewood
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    I recently started rental of a retail property, after 1 week of receiving the keys this bloke walks in, saying he was calling to read the electric meter and were we the new tennents, to which we said yes. He filled a form in and asked me to sign as the new tennent. 2 weeks later I have received a letter from EDF Energy welcoming me as a new customer and that I am tied into a contract until 30 June 2010 at rates that are not competitive. I have phoned them, they have said It is a fixed term contract, I cannot leave until it has expired and if I do I will be charged £500. All they can do now is put a complaint through about the salesman. Because it is a business there is no cooling off period.
    Can they get away with this?? I told them I was very angry about it and she said she would get the manager to call me later today. Can I threaten them with any action?
    Any advice will be greatly appreciated.
    Thanks, J
  • espresso
    espresso Posts: 16,446 Forumite
    First Post First Anniversary Combo Breaker
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    :confused:

    Did you not read the form that you signed? Meter readers don't ask for signatures!
    :doh: Blue text on this forum usually signifies hyperlinks, so click on them!..:wall:
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