What happens with dividend payment after you sell your holding in a accumulation fund

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If I buy into a Fund where the dividends are re-invested (accumulation), and then sell after the ex-dividend date. What happens to the dividend payment which is due say 1 month later ?
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  • Glen_Clark
    Glen_Clark Posts: 4,397 Forumite
    edited 16 July 2018 at 10:28AM
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    The Accumulation funds I hold don't have ex-dividend dates or pay out dividends.
    Dividends are constantly re-invested throughout the year.
    They just publish a figure of the amount of dividends that have been re-invested over the year for tax purposes. So you know how much to declare as income, and how much to declare as capital growth (or capital loss) when you sell. (unless of course its in an ISA and then you don't need to know any of that)
    “It is difficult to get a man to understand something, when his salary depends on his not understanding it.” --Upton Sinclair
  • bowlhead99
    bowlhead99 Posts: 12,295 Forumite
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    edited 16 July 2018 at 11:01AM
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    As you probably know - if it was an INC fund and you sell or redeem the shares ex dividend (literally: the person who buys the shares from you has no right to receive the dividend, because you alone have the right to the dividend having held the share on the relevant date to earn that right, and are selling the shares ex- the rights to the next dividend) then you will get the cash payment of the dividends, paid along to you separately even though you no longer own the shares.

    And as you probably know, with ACC funds, there is no 'cash payment of the dividend' and so the price of the share does *not* drop on ex-div day (which with an INC fund it would have done, to reflect the fact that you have a pending dividend cash receipt in one hand and a tradeable share in the other). Instead, the share price stays the same, reflecting the fact that your class of shares is one where you pre agreed for no cash to be paid to you and all dividend income to be redeployed into new assets.

    In an ACC fund on ex div day, therefore instead of being left with in one hand a tradeable share at a reduced value and in the other, an IOU for cash dividend to be received in due course; you have in one hand a tradeable share whose value has *not* been reduced, and in the other, nothing.

    So, when a few days later, you decide to redeem that ACC share at its fair market value, the value you can cash it in at, is implicitly inclusive of the dividend monies, because it's been agreed that no dividends were going to get paid out in cash and 100% of the dividends would be rolled up into the ongoing value of the fund and invested in more of the fund's underlying investments.

    So although you are thinking of your situation as one in which you sell ex div, without the right to the div, really the cash element of the div was only going to be £0, so you can still get the full amount of disposal price for the shares when selling ex-div, that you'd have received if selling a few days earlier c u m div instead.

    From a tax perspective though, if you are holding the funds outside a tax wrapper, and you chose to hold the shares through until the ex div date and maybe a little bit beyond... You will still have the responsibility to account for income tax on the income (not the £0 cash dividend, but the entire deemed dividend applicable to the share). That's because you sold the share, ex div, without the rights to the dividend, so implicitly you have kept the rights to the dividend for yourself.
    Glen_Clark wrote: »
    The Accumulation funds I hold don't have ex-dividend dates or pay out dividends.
    Dividends are constantly re-invested throughout the year.
    They just publish a figure of the amount of dividends that have been re-invested over the year for tax purposes.

    That can perhaps be the case with non-UK funds, accumulating ETFs and so on but generally open ended funds (oeics / UTs) for the UK market will have fixed ex div dates which are typically aligned with the dates of their INC counterparts (in the case where there is an INC version). When investing through a fund platform, the platform will get the data from the funds for the relevant dates you held the shares and bring it into your consolidated tax certificate.
  • Glen_Clark
    Glen_Clark Posts: 4,397 Forumite
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    bowlhead99 wrote: »
    That can perhaps be the case with non-UK funds, accumulating ETFs and so on but generally open ended funds (oeics / UTs) for the UK market will have fixed ex div dates which are typically aligned with the dates of their INC counterparts
    I fail to understand how a fund that doesn't pay out dividends can have an ex-dividend date?
    “It is difficult to get a man to understand something, when his salary depends on his not understanding it.” --Upton Sinclair
  • bowlhead99
    bowlhead99 Posts: 12,295 Forumite
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    edited 17 July 2018 at 6:40PM
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    I fail to understand how a fund that doesn't pay out dividends can have an ex-dividend date?,

    The government generally accepts that it's good for investors to be able to access a diversified set of investments by pooling their resources on a collective basis with others, without huge tax leakage from the "middleman" vehicle which actually holds the investments.

    Consider how inefficient it would be if, in order to invest collectively in the companies in the FTSE, you had to stick your money into a UK investment vehicle which had to pay corporation tax at 20% on all its UK dividend income and capital gains from its investment activities... and then when you as an investor got paid dividends from the investment vehicle, or sold your shares in the investment vehicle for a profit, you had to pay your personal income tax and capital gains as well.

    It would be a pretty bad way of doing things from a tax perspective, compared to the result you could achieve by investing in the underlying shares directly. Especially for some entity types that don't even pay tax, like pensions. But holding everything directly might be similarly unacceptable due to the risks and inefficiencies of trying to personally hold the whole portfolio in your own name directly.

    So, regulated collective investment schemes in the form of OEICs and investment trusts are allowed to not pay corporation tax on their gains and UK divs received, as long as they follow the rules.

    One of the rules for them to follow is that they have to 'pay out' all their net income every year. Otherwise they could just hoard it and the owners (investors) of the collective investment scheme could sell on their shares to other people, paying CGT only on their rolled-up personal gains, at rates well below income tax marginal rates. The individual owners/shareholders of the scheme having never received any dividends from the scheme in which they invested, and therefore never getting any income tax bills.

    So, a UK OEIC or UT which wants to avail itself of the exemption from corporation tax on gains and div income (without which exemption, investors wouldn't touch it)... is going to have to be seen to distribute all the net income it has generated.

    HMRC recognise that some funds want to be structured to reinvest returns from their investment without kicking them back to investors and have the investors push the money back into the fund again. So they allow ACC classes where the net income isn't physically distributed but it is still officially allocated out to investors on the share register at a particular time, just like a physically-paid cash dividend would be.

    As such, just like with a distributing INC fund, there must be some day that you look at the register of members and say OK, as of this particular day, these are my investors, and I am going to declare the income is now theirs to keep. I will 'distribute' (well, assign) [£x] of income per unit to all investors on the register at midnight on the [y] of July which means that with the standard settlement timelines you have to get your order to me to subscribe in or redeem out by [z] of July if you want to make sure you are on or off the register. If you don't subscribe or redeem by z July your shares will now be "ex div' without the latest allocation of profit

    If you didn't have these organised ex div dates with big lumps of dividend being allocated out, one option to put the money from profits to the OEIC or UT would have been to just allocate out a little on a daily basis, but that would be a pain for the fund and the investor alike.
  • londoninvestor
    londoninvestor Posts: 1,350 Forumite
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    edited 17 July 2018 at 11:22PM
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    Bowlhead99, all this is makes sense - but do acc funds actually use an ex-div date like this, as distinct from the notional "payment date" of the dividend? (i.e. the date on which the income units pay it).

    They don't need the lead time associated with instructing the payment of cash (which is why income units and indeed plain old shares have an ex-div date), they just need to retrospectively account for holders' dividends.

    I can't recall my tax voucher ever showing a dividend on an acc fund after I'd sold it. Weak anecdotal evidence I know, it could just be I've never sold an acc fund between the "ex-div" and dividend payment dates. (Edit - see my later post, I have just recently put this to the test and found that I do see a dividend in this situation.)
  • Audaxer
    Audaxer Posts: 3,512 Forumite
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    I can see how it can be confusing as I was surprised to see that on my wife's account with AJ Bell she received a secure message saying a dividend of £77.26 had been credited to her account on 15 June. I was surprised as it is an ACC fund and I thought there was no actual dividend. As the dividend on that fund is 'paid' bi-annually I assume that the £77.26 is her share of the accumulation of all the dividends the fund has received in the previous 6 months, and the balance of her account has just gradually increased by that amount over the 6 months?
  • Tom99
    Tom99 Posts: 5,371 Forumite
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    Audaxer wrote: »
    I can see how it can be confusing as I was surprised to see that on my wife's account with AJ Bell she received a secure message saying a dividend of £77.26 had been credited to her account on 15 June. I was surprised as it is an ACC fund and I thought there was no actual dividend. As the dividend on that fund is 'paid' bi-annually I assume that the £77.26 is her share of the accumulation of all the dividends the fund has received in the previous 6 months, and the balance of her account has just gradually increased by that amount over the 6 months?


    [FONT=Verdana, sans-serif]The question is, if your wife had sold all of that ACC fund on the 1st June would she still have been notified of a “payment” of £77.26 on the 15th June?[/FONT]
  • Audaxer
    Audaxer Posts: 3,512 Forumite
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    Tom99 wrote: »
    [FONT=Verdana, sans-serif]The question is, if your wife had sold all of that ACC fund on the 1st June would she still have been notified of a !!!8220;payment!!!8221; of £77.26 on the 15th June?[/FONT]
    That's a good point. There was no actual payment to the account, so I assume she wouldn't have been notified. The ex-div date was 16 April, so if she had an INC version of the fund and sold it after that date, she would have received a dividend on 15 June. Presumably the dividend on the ACC version accumulated in the 6 months to 16 April, so anyone who sold after that date would have 'received' the accumulated dividend in the ACC share value.
  • Tom99
    Tom99 Posts: 5,371 Forumite
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    edited 17 July 2018 at 8:40PM
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    Audaxer wrote: »
    That's a good point. There was no actual payment to the account, so I assume she wouldn't have been notified. The ex-div date was 16 April, so if she had an INC version of the fund and sold it after that date, she would have received a dividend on 15 June. Presumably the dividend on the ACC version accumulated in the 6 months to 16 April, so anyone who sold after that date would have 'received' the accumulated dividend in the ACC share value.


    [FONT=Verdana, sans-serif]Yes if she has sold on 1st June she would not have received any more cash on 15th June but, if I understand what bowlhead99 is saying, she would still, for tax purposes, have received the £77.26 as a ACC dividend and have to account for it as such.[/FONT]
    [FONT=Verdana, sans-serif]The question Londoninvestor was asking was whether the platform tax certificate would actually show that amount as a dividend.
    [/FONT]
  • Audaxer
    Audaxer Posts: 3,512 Forumite
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    Tom99 wrote: »
    [FONT=Verdana, sans-serif]Yes if she has sold on 1st June she would not have received any more cash on 15th June but, if I understand what bowlhead99 is saying, she would still, for tax purposes, have received the £77.26 as a ACC dividend and have to account for it as such.[/FONT]
    Yes, she would have, but as she has the fund in both a SIPP and an S&S ISA tax she doesn't need to account for the dividends for tax purposes.
    [FONT=Verdana, sans-serif]The question Londoninvestor was asking was whether the platform tax certificate would actually show that amount as a dividend.
    [/FONT]
    I'm guessing that on AJ Bell it would show on a tax certificate as the message said a dividend had been credited and stated the amount. However it might not be the same on every platform, as I previously read on the forum that it was sometimes difficult to establish what the reinvested dividend was on ACC funds.

    The OP was asking what happens to his dividend if he sells after ex-div date. The answer is that he has already received the accumulated dividend in the share price.
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