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For those of you who are aware, i'm awaiting a response from the Woolwich regarding a 10yr fixed @ 5.99% to enable me to roll two mortgages into one.

It's just occurred to me-what would the tax implications be if and when I sell Prop A to pay off Prop B?

Would the government tax me on the sale of Prop A because all my money's tied up in Prop B and it's technically my main residence?

Perhaps i'm actually better off keeping two mortgages?

Thank you-I really do need help.
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