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Tax calculation
Can someone help me understand why dividends seem to be taxed at 20% rather than 8.75/33.75%?
HMRC:
Pay from all employments £49,318.00
Dividends from foreign companies £548.00
Interest from UK banks, building societies and securities etc £415.00
Dividends from UK companies £428.00
Total income received £50,709.00
minus Personal Allowance £12,570.00
Total income on which tax is due £38,139.00
Pay, pensions, profit etc. (UK rate for England and Northern Ireland)
Basic rate £37,224.00 x 20% £7,444.80
Savings interest from banks or building societies, securities etc.
Basic rate band at nil rate £415.00 x 0% £0.00
Income Tax due after allowances and reliefs £7,444.80
minus Foreign Tax Credit Relief £83.00
Income Tax due after tax reductions £7,361.80
My calculations:
Employment = £49,318 - £12,570 (Personal Allowance) = £36,748 * 20% = £7,349.60 tax due
£952 of basic rate band left
Savings = £415 * 0% (Personal Savings Allowance) = £0 tax due
£537 of basic rate band left
Dividends = £548 + £428 = £976
First £500 at 0% (Dividend Allowance)
£37 of basic rate band left
£37 * 8.75% = £3.23
£439 * 33.75% = £148.16
= £151.39 tax due
£7,349.60 + £151.39 - £83 (Foreign Tax Credit Relief) = £7,417.99 vs HMRC's £7,361.80
Comments
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Has beneficial ordering been applied?
This could make more of your earnings taxable at 20%, but avoid having to pay tax at 33.75%.
Will have to check the figures but that seems a possibility.
Is this a SA302 calculation or a P800?
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It's an SA302, and yes I presume HMRC have applied beneficial ordering
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But you think that is incorrect?
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I'd just like to understand exactly how it's been calculated
I don't understand why the dividends have been lumped into the 20% income tax rate, rather than using dividend tax rates?
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I think you have misunderstood beneficial ordering.
It's where HMRC have allocated your Personal Allowance in such as a way as to give you the lowest overall liability.
Why do you think the dividends have been taxed at 20%? Nothing in your original post suggests that.
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HMRC have: Basic rate £37,224.00 x 20% £7,444.80
I thought £37,224 was calculated as £49,318 employment + £548 foreign dividends + £428 UK dividends - £12,570 personal allowance - £500 dividend allowance = £37,224
Is that not correct?
If it is correct why are the dividends above the allowance of £476 not taxable at dividend tax rates?
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In your original post you said something a bit different.
Pay, pensions, profit etc. (UK rate for England and Northern Ireland)
Basic rate £37,224.00 x 20% £7,444.80
What does the wording on the calculation say?
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That is the exact wording on the calculation, everything under HMRC in my original post is directly copied from the calculation
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And you haven't inadvertently missed something from this bit of your original post?
Pay, pensions, profit etc. (UK rate for England and Northern Ireland)
Basic rate £37,224.00 x 20% £7,444.80Savings interest from banks or building societies, securities etc.
Basic rate band at nil rate £415.00 x 0% £0.00Income Tax due after allowances and reliefs £7,444.80
minus Foreign Tax Credit Relief £83.00Income Tax due after tax reductions £7,361.80
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