We’d like to remind Forumites to please avoid political debate on the Forum.
This is to keep it a safe and useful space for MoneySaving discussions. Threads that are – or become – political in nature may be removed in line with the Forum’s rules. Thank you for your understanding.
📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!
Do I qualify as first time buyer in UK if I purchased a flat in Spain but sold it years ago?
Pickwicks2024
Posts: 1 Newbie
Hi. We're looking to buy a property in the UK. Could anyone clarify if we qualify as first time buyers if we owned a flat in Spain but sold it 2 years ago? Thank you.
0
Comments
-
In what context?
But generally, no. You're not a first time buyer, you're a second time buyer.0 -
No you are not a first time buyer doesn't matter that the flat was not in the uk or that you have sold it.Pickwicks2024 said:Hi. We're looking to buy a property in the UK. Could anyone clarify if we qualify as first time buyers if we owned a flat in Spain but sold it 2 years ago? Thank you.0 -
Surely the context is relevant?Yes, so far as HMRC is concerned, and SDLT/LTT OP is not a FTB.Same (I believe) regarding eligibility to HTB ISAs etc.But banks and mortgage lenders have their own criteria and (again I believe) some/all used to judge based on whether the applicant had an existing/current property and/or mortgage.Happy to be corrected.0
Confirm your email address to Create Threads and Reply
Categories
- All Categories
- 352.5K Banking & Borrowing
- 253.7K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
- 454.4K Spending & Discounts
- 245.5K Work, Benefits & Business
- 601.4K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
- 177.6K Life & Family
- 259.4K Travel & Transport
- 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
- 16K Discuss & Feedback
- 37.7K Read-Only Boards