Query on how defaults are recorded

in_need_of_direction
Forumite Posts: 7,110
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Hi, I wonder if anyone can assist. A friend is trying to get on the property ladder but is plagued by defaults on her credit history. The debt has been paid in full. It arose due to non payment of a Tesco mobile phone bill. This was then passed to Lowell. Her Experian record shows three defaults. When she queried this, she was told that one related to the money owed to Tesco, one related to the equipment cost being recovered by Lowell and one related to the phone usage element passed to Lowell. Is this right?
Mortgage at 01.01.14 £119,481.83:eek: today £0 Emergency fund £5.5/5.5k & £200/200 cash.:jWeight 24/02/19 14st 7lb now 11st 12lbdetermined to stop defining myself by my mistakes. Progress not perfection.:T100%through my 1% mortgage challenge. 11.1% through my pb challenge.
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Comments
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Mobile phone contracts are often in two parts and recorded separately on credit reports.
Clearly Lowell have bought this and so the Tesco entry should just be historical. But it will have defaulted with them, which allows them to sell the debt.
I would expect the Tesco balance to show as settled (because they sold it) and the Lowell balance to show as settled (because you paid it)
The default dates should all be the same.
The entries drop off 6 years after the default date1 -
Thanks fatbelly, appreciate the inputMortgage at 01.01.14 £119,481.83:eek: today £0 Emergency fund £5.5/5.5k & £200/200 cash.:jWeight 24/02/19 14st 7lb now 11st 12lbdetermined to stop defining myself by my mistakes. Progress not perfection.:T100%through my 1% mortgage challenge. 11.1% through my pb challenge.0
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