Is an inheritor still liable for council tax before house deeds are moved?

Slumbershade

I assume yes, as someone could just refuse to change the deeds and evade it. Thanks.

The_Unready

What do you mean "before house deeds are moved"? Do you mean before the house is sold?

Flugelhorn

The usual thing is that if the property is empty after the owner has died and the ownership has not changed the council may suspend charges for a period of time - I dealt with one that allowed 6 months (can't remember if this was total or just after probate.

Keep_pedalling

After the 6 months are up it is the responsibility of the administrator to pay any CT if the house is unoccupied. If someone is now living there then it is now their responsibility. Once ownership is transferred it becomes the responsibility of the new owner or occupier.

lincroft1710

The statutory exemption only applies if the executors of the estate intend to sell the property after probate is granted. If there is no intention to sell then the estate is responsible for payment of CT until ownership of the house is transferred to the beneficiary, which will be when the executors distribute the estate. 


A few councils do give discretionary discounts on empty properties, but most do not.  

Slumbershade

lincroft1710 said:

The statutory exemption only applies if the executors of the estate intend to sell the property after probate is granted. If there is no intention to sell then the estate is responsible for payment of CT until ownership of the house is transferred to the beneficiary, which will be when the executors distribute the estate. 


A few councils do give discretionary discounts on empty properties, but most do not.  

Right, so if all other assets have been distributed. But the deeds for a house are still in the name of the deceased then technically its the executor's job to be paying the council tax?

Flugelhorn

Slumbershade said:

lincroft1710 said:

The statutory exemption only applies if the executors of the estate intend to sell the property after probate is granted. If there is no intention to sell then the estate is responsible for payment of CT until ownership of the house is transferred to the beneficiary, which will be when the executors distribute the estate. 


A few councils do give discretionary discounts on empty properties, but most do not.  

Right, so if all other assets have been distributed. But the deeds for a house are still in the name of the deceased then technically its the executor's job to be paying the council tax?

that would be right - if they have distributed everything else then it sounds like they have no intention of selling the house? is that the case? In which case whoever is living there has to pay up, if  no-one then the estate is still responsible 

really the rest of the assets shouldn't have been distributed yet  if the property was part of the estate and it has not been sold and there are still associated bills

Might be easier if you explain what has happened as there can be lots of ifs and but in these situations

macman

Is the executor or beneficiary currently occupying the house? The first liable person is the occupier, not the legal owner, which is currently the estate. Give us the context here.