Old firm still saying son being paid but isn’t

brian_riches_2

Hi Can anyone help?
My son has received a tax demand 2021 - 2022 saying he owes tax .
on investigation his old firm is stating that they paid him for the last 6 months ie from October 2021 to March 2022. 

However he hasn’t been employed there and has been working at another firm.
He called the tax office today to explain and they said the tax office has wrote to his old firm twice but they haven’t replied.
The guy from the tax office said he must contact ACAS to sort it out . 

That’s sounds a bit strange, any thoughts please

Dazed_and_C0nfused

No need to get ACAS involved and nothing HMRC will do about it, they are just reacting to the information the (old) employer has supplied.

Is the calculation he's received a P800 or PA302?

Ultimately it will almost certainly only be changed when the old employer files revised details under the Real Time Information system.

Dazed_and_C0nfused

brian_riches_2 said:

Thanks for your reply. 

No number just a letter from tax office. This is causing many problems with working tax credits. Also his firm has closed until September 

Are you sure the letter doesn't have a number on the bottom left or right corner?

It would be unusual to get a "tax demand" without a calculation of some sort being issued first.

Dazed_and_C0nfused

brian_riches_2 said:

yes  it has 3 figures.
1 old firm ( correct) 
2 new firm ( correct )
3 old firm ( incorrect) 

That might just change things.

Can you post the pay and tax deducted figures from 1 and 3.  Doesn't have to be exact but the rough picture should do.

Has he checked his Personal Tax Account to see if 3 relates to a period after he stopped being paid or is that an assumption?

Dazed_and_C0nfused

Ok so I think you need to get him to check his Personal Tax Account and see what dates the £6109 and £5775 relate to.

There should be information about each payment reported in the PAYE section for 2021:22.

If the £5775 is earlier than the £6109 and the £6109 includes one or more payments dated after the £5775 and these total £334 then this may be a fault at HMRC's end, not with the old employer.

Which should in theory be easier to resolve than getting the old employer involved.

brian_riches_2

Thank you very much , I’ll get him to check 

greatkingrat

Did the old firm make any payments to him after he left (maybe for outstanding holiday pay?). It sounds like they may have made him a leaver, then reinstated him to pay any outstanding money, but mucked it up and ended up submitting the whole years salary twice.

brian_riches_2

Thanks for your reply 

No they didn’t pay anything after leaving date, the tax office has wrote to the old firm twice but both letters ignored. 

Yesterday the tax office said he needs to contact acas which sounds a bit over the top. He has shown bank statements to tax office to prove no money has been paid in after leaving date. 

Dazed_and_C0nfused

brian_riches_2 said:

Thanks for your reply 

No they didn’t pay anything after leaving date, the tax office has wrote to the old firm twice but both letters ignored. 

Yesterday the tax office said he needs to contact acas which sounds a bit over the top. He has shown bank statements to tax office to prove no money has been paid in after leaving date. 

You are probably overcomplicating things and it may well not be an error by the employer.

Once you establish the payment details from his Personal Tax Account it should if the £5775 is included in the £6109 or not.

If it is then it would almost certainly be an issue within HMRCs scope to resolve.

Penguin_

If an employee has paid tax in the year then leaves midway but the firm don't P45 them then the employee will be left as a live employee & they may get tax rebates paid via the employer.

sheramber

https://www.gov.uk/pay-and-work-rights

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