Loan taken out fraudulently

Chucklechops

Hi

I have  friend who has just received a letter from a debt collection agency, stating that she owes them around £700.

This debt has arisen due to her ex-boyfriend fraudulently taking out a loan to buy a mobile phone in her name & under her old address (from when she was living with her ex). This happened approximately 10 years ago. My friend states that her bank account hasn't been used in connection with making any payments to the mobile phone company (O2), and she has never previously received any correspondence in relation to this matter.

As her ex-boyfriend was abusive towards her, she has no intention of speaking to him about it, but she has emailed the debt collection agency, asking to see the signature on the credit agreement, and for details of all payments made in connection to paying for the phone, including details of the bank account that was used to make these payments. She has also asked for details of all of the missed payments.

At this stage, is there anything else that she should be doing? And given that this apparent fraud was committed around 10 years ago, can she be held liable for the debt? Is there anything else that she should be dong at this stage?

I would appreciate any help you can give.

Many thanks.

fatbelly

There's no credit agreement on a mobile phone account but they may well send details of payments. If the last one was more than six years ago and no court claim has been started then regardless of whose debt this is, it is statute barred.

There's a letter that would fit (not my debt but statute barred anyway) in the stickies.

Chucklechops

Thank you!

sourcrates

I would be pretty confident that this will be statute barred whatever the detail may be.

Friend should not enter into speculation here, send the statute barred letter in response to any further communications she gets from the DCA.