Leashold misunderstanding clause

Ralichkai98

Good afternoon,

I was approved for mortgage loan. Now I am about to sign all contract papers. There is a clause which I don't understand:

' Not to use premises for anything other than as a private residence in a single occupation by one household. '

Could anyone explain what does this mean? Currently, I am buying 25% of the property. The other 75% are hold by the seller ( house association) . The thing is my partner will be living with me at this property but I understand this clause like this is not possible and the landlord wants the property to be occupied by one person. We are not engaged or married neither. He is happy to sign whatever is need to confirm he is not pretending and will be not pretending for any part of this property and I am the only one responsible for mortgage and it will be my property in future. 


I have contacted my solicitor and still waiting for his reply but I am so worried.

[Deleted User]

It means no letting out rooms to strangers, no running opium dens, no brothels, no artisan bakery delivery service in the basement.

It's fine for your partner to live with you. It's one household, not one person.