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Mortgage Reserve
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Trebormint
Posts: 72 Forumite
Hi,
Being slightly dim at the moment due to huge amount of pain killing drugs so bear with me.
I have a mortgage reserve account which I had been using to support my ex GF and me on a joint venture we under took to do up a house, rent it out and then sell it after a few years.
I used some of my available mortgage reserve which was nearly £58848.00
From the mortgage payments my ex was paying in £355 per month which covered the interest payments plus a little but more (interest tracks at 0.19% above base which was 5.49%).
Now we have split we are selling the house which is all fine, however when working out who is owed what I am getting confused.
Here are the exact figures
Sale Price 382500
Estate agent fees 2868.75
Conveyancing fees 1041.00
Mortgage 140834.27
Capital owing on my reserve account 45743.68
Capital owing on ex reserve account 47467.00
Sub total 237955.70
Therefore proceeds equal £144544.31 according to these calculations to be split 50/50 however;
My initial outlay for the reserve was 58848 - now reduced to 45743.68 according to her calculations, but difficult to see directly as money has moved in and out of that account since then so amounts have varied a lot since then
she is stating her reserve has increased from 38208.75 to 47467.99 without I must point out any evidence to support this but claims this was to cover other expenses like house insurance etc, but I have not yet seen this so can't be clear.
My question is more in relation to my mortgage reserve.
As I own 50% of any proceeds, am I right in thinking that any over payments against the capital outlay for the mortgage reserve (approx £110 per month) was also 50% mine in which case the reduced balance that is now owed against the mortgage should be in fact half of the difference
£58848 - £45743.68 = £13,104.32 divided by 2 = £6552.16
So ultimately reducing the balance of my reserve to £52,295.84
My brain hurts, is this right?
Any help much appreciated
Being slightly dim at the moment due to huge amount of pain killing drugs so bear with me.
I have a mortgage reserve account which I had been using to support my ex GF and me on a joint venture we under took to do up a house, rent it out and then sell it after a few years.
I used some of my available mortgage reserve which was nearly £58848.00
From the mortgage payments my ex was paying in £355 per month which covered the interest payments plus a little but more (interest tracks at 0.19% above base which was 5.49%).
Now we have split we are selling the house which is all fine, however when working out who is owed what I am getting confused.
Here are the exact figures
Sale Price 382500
Estate agent fees 2868.75
Conveyancing fees 1041.00
Mortgage 140834.27
Capital owing on my reserve account 45743.68
Capital owing on ex reserve account 47467.00
Sub total 237955.70
Therefore proceeds equal £144544.31 according to these calculations to be split 50/50 however;
My initial outlay for the reserve was 58848 - now reduced to 45743.68 according to her calculations, but difficult to see directly as money has moved in and out of that account since then so amounts have varied a lot since then
she is stating her reserve has increased from 38208.75 to 47467.99 without I must point out any evidence to support this but claims this was to cover other expenses like house insurance etc, but I have not yet seen this so can't be clear.
My question is more in relation to my mortgage reserve.
As I own 50% of any proceeds, am I right in thinking that any over payments against the capital outlay for the mortgage reserve (approx £110 per month) was also 50% mine in which case the reduced balance that is now owed against the mortgage should be in fact half of the difference
£58848 - £45743.68 = £13,104.32 divided by 2 = £6552.16
So ultimately reducing the balance of my reserve to £52,295.84
My brain hurts, is this right?
Any help much appreciated
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