Partner potentially going bankrupt

KeepOnKnitting

I am very definitely not an expert here, so please take this as an opinion rather than suggestion.

If he hasn't been paying his rent, he hasn't been accruing beneficial interest as he hasn't been helping to pay the mortgage. Maybe that would be different if he had been named on the mortgage/deeds, or married to you, but you have stated that this isn't the case. I would really love to know if I have interpreted this right or wrong.

Either way, good luck.

TBagpuss

Did you own the house before you and he became a couple, or was it bought when you were together but put into your name because of his debt issues? If you owned it first, then it would be much harder for the OR to argue that he should be seen as having a beneficial interest.

As the official guidance says, it's unusual to be able to show that the beneficial ownership if different to the legal ownership. If the house was in joint names but was transferred into your sole name when your partners started to get into debt, or if he contributed a chunk of money to the deposit when you bought, then the argument he has an interest would be much stronger, and the OR might well try to argue it.