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Mortgage without any agreement attached
Barny1979
Posts: 7,920 Forumite
If there is any equity in a property and a deposit paid, if there was no agreement made prior to purchase could the equity be split 50/50 if one individual paid more of the deposit?
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Comments
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In the absence of any agreement. Then both parties would need to agree to the division of any equity. Before it's paid out.0
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Unless the property is held a Tenants in common in which case the property may not be owned 50/50.I am a Mortgage AdviserYou should note that this site doesn't check my status as a mortgage adviser, so you need to take my word for it. This signature is here as I follow MSE's Mortgage Adviser Code of Conduct. Any posts on here are for information and discussion purposes only and shouldn't be seen as financial advice.0
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