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Sale of a house with joint mortgage
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mike316
Posts: 2 Newbie
Hi,
My partner recently moved out of a home she holds a joint mortgage on with her brother and father. Upon remortgage 2 years ago the two siblings were added to the mortgage with the father moving out and living by himself (also taking significant equity out). Throughout these two years only the siblings contributed to the payments for the house, time has come to sell. Are all parties due equal third shares from the sale, or are the siblings entitled to more for their contributions over the last 2 years?
Kind Regards
My partner recently moved out of a home she holds a joint mortgage on with her brother and father. Upon remortgage 2 years ago the two siblings were added to the mortgage with the father moving out and living by himself (also taking significant equity out). Throughout these two years only the siblings contributed to the payments for the house, time has come to sell. Are all parties due equal third shares from the sale, or are the siblings entitled to more for their contributions over the last 2 years?
Kind Regards
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Comments
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That would depend on what agreement they came to before they embarked on this.I am a mortgage broker. You should note that this site doesn't check my status as a Mortgage Adviser, so you need to take my word for it. This signature is here as I follow MSE's Mortgage Adviser Code of Conduct. Any posts on here are for information and discussion purposes only and shouldn't be seen as financial advice. Please do not send PMs asking for one-to-one-advice, or representation.0
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Upon remortgage 2 years ago the two siblings were added to the mortgage with the father moving out and living by himself (also taking significant equity out).
Assuming that was still equity left in the house. Then your partner would benefit from this is if the split was an equitable 3 ways.0 -
kingstreet wrote: »That would depend on what agreement they came to before they embarked on this.
There was no formal/legal agreement when they embarked, there was a non-formal agreement that because he took a share from the remortgage, whatever the house was sold for would be split between the two siblings. I would assume there is not much ground to enforce this? (Unless written examples of this are available?) He has become quite unreasonable to deal with and financially could be struggling, even after the equity that was taken a couple of years ago, the feeling is that he will try and take another share for himself upon sale.Thrugelmir wrote: »Assuming that was still equity left in the house. Then your partner would benefit from this is if the split was an equitable 3 ways.
He took 30k out at the remortgage, at current house valuations, there is around 50-60k of equity left.0 -
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