Advice please - Barclaycard/RMA

Leixlip1

I shall try and keep this short and simple:
Barclaycard declined my offer of repayment on a debt with them and passed the matter onto RMA. I've not acknowledged a debt with them, sent the CCA letter to them, allowed the 12+2 and the 30 period after that has ended with no CCAgreement/deed of transfer etc forthcoming so I've written to RMA and politley told them where to go.
Today I've received a letter from Barclaycard saying they've sold the debt on to RMA and any payments made to Barclaycard will be sent to RMA (I guess proving they have actually sold it on).
I suspect that no credit agreement can be found - I originally signed it 30 years ago...........
Questions:
Am I right to stop any further payment to Barclaycard as they've sold the debt on?
Am I right in not making any payment to RMA as they have not supplied the requested information in the timespan alloted?
Can I request that RMA refund me any payments forwarded by Barclaycard since the debt was sold on?
And finally am I correct in assuming there is little RMA can do if they cannot provide the agreement etc requested? (leaving aside the moral argument about the debt accrued)

Any advice, opinions etc most welcome!

RAS

if you have not accidently acknowledged it it could be statute barred, but I do not know the law that far back.

Under the Consumer Credit Act (1980 i think), then a debt which has not been paid nor acknowledged for 6 years or more is statute barred.

I would us that rather than the CCA.

Leixlip1

Thanks Ras - it's not a statute barred debt.

RAS

BUMP BUMP bump

rog2

You are correct in assuming that there is little that RMA can do without supplying you a true copy of the original CCA and Deed of Assignment.
I would, again, write to RMA and state that, since they failed to provide you with a true copy of the original credit agreement within the time allowed by law, you intend to report them to the Office of Fair Trading, Financial Services Association and the Information Commissioner.