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NRAM - how payments are applied

Hi,

I hope someone can help.
I had an NRAM mortgages plus unsecured loan. I made one monthly payment which covered both elements. The account was with my ex-husband and had a marital dispute marker because of our divorce. I made the payments for almost seven years with my ex-husbanding refusing the having anything to do with the mortgage.
Last year, I instructed a solicitor. I was also on maternity leave with three months unpaid leave at the end of the leave. My solicitor advised me to contact NRAM and ask if, given that I had paid the mortgage for the last seven years (they had no address for the ex or had had any contact for seven years at this point), they would consider dealing with me as a sole party and would consider a payment holiday to cover my unpaid maternity.
NRAM flat refused and passed me to debt management. Via conversations with my solicitor, The ex-husband started to behave reasonably for the first time in seven years and agreed to pay three months of mortgage payments while I was on unpaid leave.
However, he managed to make the first month's payment late by one or two days. I became aware of this when I checked my credit file. I have asked NRAM to remove this as it was a mistake, and most lenders will generally not record a late payment for the sake of one day or two, even if this is as a goodwill gesture. NRAM won't budge on the late payment marker, even after raising a complaint, because a) it was late and b) we are joint and severally liable.
I understand that lenders have an obligation to record data factually, but NRAM actually make it incredibly difficult to pass security if you aren't the one regularly paying the mortgage (how do you pay, how much do you pay are typical questions and if you fail one, you can't discuss the account).
What I am really confused about is on my credit file, there is a late payment recorded against the unsecured element but not the mortgage. I would love to know if anyone knows and can explain to me how they can record one late payment and one non late payment on two accounts which were paid with the same payment and if I have a cat in hell's chance of getting this removed. My suspicion is that they may have used some of the overpayments accrued on the mortgage but it would be helpful if someone can explain how NRAM apply payments to their/your accounts.
So in summary, there are two things I would like to know:
1. How do NRAM apply customer payments to multiple account elements
2. Do I have any chance of getting a late payment removed as described above?

Comments

  • Thrugelmir
    Thrugelmir Posts: 89,546 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper Photogenic
    If you are in debt management mode then a single late payment flag isn't going to have a materially further negative impact on your credit file.
    I understand that lenders have an obligation to record data factually, but NRAM actually make it incredibly difficult to pass security if you aren't the one regularly paying the mortgage (how do you pay, how much do you pay are typical questions and if you fail one, you can't discuss the account).

    Security needs to be secure. Not the lenders problem as to the borrowers personal circumstances.
  • I am not in debt management. When I asked NRAM for a payment holiday because I was on maternity leave, they passed me to debt management, rather than discussing a payment holiday with me, as the sole person who had paid the mortgage for seven years.
    I mention this, because while the payment holiday hasn't been granted, it may have been applied later (automatically?) when my ex-husband paid the account late. The mortgage account doesn't show a late payment but the unsecured loan does.
  • Thrugelmir wrote: »
    Security needs to be secure. Not the lenders problem as to the borrowers personal circumstances.

    But if the lender can't confirm when a payment is due or the amount that needs to be paid to the borrower, because they can't pass security, and therefore the account be comes overdue and late, what is a sensible way to resolve this?
  • Thrugelmir
    Thrugelmir Posts: 89,546 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper Photogenic
    But if the lender can't confirm when a payment is due

    Payment date is set at the outset so will fall on the same day of the month.
    I am not in debt management. When I asked NRAM for a payment holiday because I was on maternity leave, they passed me to debt management, rather than discussing a payment holiday with me, as the sole person who had paid the mortgage for seven years.

    You had insufficient savings to meet your financial commitments during your maternity leave. Authorised arrears will impact your credit record. The past 7 years has no bearing.
  • Thrugelmir wrote: »
    Payment date is set at the outset so will fall on the same day of the month.

    That's not entirely true. The NRAM view is it should be within the month, which may be their view. Outside the month is late and my ex wasn't aware of that.

    Thrugelmir wrote: »
    You had insufficient savings to meet your financial commitments during your maternity leave. Authorised arrears will impact your credit record. The past 7 years has no bearing.

    I didn't say that. I refused debt management and authorised arrears to avoid impacting my credit record. Payments were made in full for the three months of my unpaid leave, but one payment was made in full, one day late.
    One payment to NRAM covered two accounts. It was recorded late on one account and not another, hence the question, how do NRAM allocate payments.
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