Dismissed for sharing a prescription

Gingernutty

maninthestreet wrote: »

....but Oramorph oral solution 10mg/5ml is not a controlled drug

Even so, under the Medicines Act of 1968, an offence has been committed.

The colleague who supplied the drug was not qualified to diagnose the need for the drug or prescribe it and even if he/she was a qualified pharmacist or chemist, had no legal authorisation to do so.

Technically, if someone passed paracetamol or ibuprofen to a colleague with a simple headache, that's an offence.

maninthestreet

Gingernutty wrote: »

Even so, under the Medicines Act of 1968, an offence has been committed.

The colleague who supplied the drug was not qualified to diagnose the need for the drug or prescribe it and even if he/she was a qualified pharmacist or chemist, had no legal authorisation to do so.

Technically, if someone passed paracetamol or ibuprofen to a colleague with a simple headache, that's an offence.

Possession of a prescription only drug without a prescription is only an offence if the drug is also controlled under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 and possession is thus specified as an offence.

Undervalued

corbyboy wrote: »

Guys, whether this drug is "recommended" to be treated as a controlled drug or if it is "best practice" is irrelevant. The fact is that at that dose it is not a controlled drug.

OK

But it is still illegal to supply any prescription only drug other than through the proper channels.

lavandergirl_2

OP, I'm really sorry that this happened to you.

Are you in a union?

DUTR

Gingernutty wrote: »

Even so, under the Medicines Act of 1968, an offence has been committed.

The colleague who supplied the drug was not qualified to diagnose the need for the drug or prescribe it and even if he/she was a qualified pharmacist or chemist, had no legal authorisation to do so.

Technically, if someone passed paracetamol or ibuprofen to a colleague with a simple headache, that's an offence.

A point I was going to make, and I have seen such text on a works training program.

Torry_Quine

It was extremely irresponsible to take someone else's medication and for them to give it to you. I can totally see why the employer wasn't happy and dismissed

Dr._Shoe

It may help if you were to post the notice in writing here so we can see their wording for why they're dismissing you.

Gingernutty

maninthestreet wrote: »

Possession of a prescription only drug without a prescription is only an offence if the drug is also controlled under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 and possession is thus specified as an offence.

The offence which occured on works property was the supply of the prescription only drug. For which, both employees are responsible.

Ronaldo_Mconaldo

So why did the colleague run off to the boss to tell them then?

Gingernutty

Ronaldo_Mconaldo wrote: »

So why did the colleague run off to the boss to tell them then?

I suspect that it either came up in conversation, and the manager, for whatever reason, decided to use it to get rid of them or we're talking about a third colleague who witnessed or heard about what had happened and snitched.