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Buying Additional Property With Mortgage/Current Owned Outright

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I originally posted this question in the House Selling and Renting forum but on second thoughts it might be more correct to ask here.

This is currently just an idea I have.

I own a property outright but am considering purchasing a new property as my main home. The first property would then be put up for sale.
I have heard that lenders will only loan a maximum of around 80% of a property value if the borrower already owns another property. Is this correct - even if one of the properties is owned outright? The first property is not mortgageable.

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  • kingstreet
    kingstreet Posts: 39,268 Forumite
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    No it isn't.

    Some will do 85%, some will do 90%.

    It varies from lender to lender.

    Newbuild LTV may be a factor if the property is brand new though.
    I am a mortgage broker. You should note that this site doesn't check my status as a Mortgage Adviser, so you need to take my word for it. This signature is here as I follow MSE's Mortgage Adviser Code of Conduct. Any posts on here are for information and discussion purposes only and shouldn't be seen as financial advice. Please do not send PMs asking for one-to-one-advice, or representation.
  • westv
    westv Posts: 6,459 Forumite
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    kingstreet wrote: »
    No it isn't.

    Some will do 85%, some will do 90%.

    It varies from lender to lender.

    Newbuild LTV may be a factor if the property is brand new though.

    Ok thanks. I thought it sounded a bit strange seeing as there is no BTL element. 90% does seem to be the norm now for minimum deposits.
  • westv
    westv Posts: 6,459 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 1,000 Posts Name Dropper
    Sorry to drag this old thread back again but I thought I better mention that I heard HSBC apply the 80% rule. I know I could just ask them but I thought I'd mention it in this wonderful forum first.
    Not new build.
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