We’d like to remind Forumites to please avoid political debate on the Forum.

This is to keep it a safe and useful space for MoneySaving discussions. Threads that are – or become – political in nature may be removed in line with the Forum’s rules. Thank you for your understanding.

📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!
The Forum now has a brand new text editor, adding a bunch of handy features to use when creating posts. Read more in our how-to guide

what does this mean ?

2»

Comments

  • xylophone
    xylophone Posts: 45,936 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper
    edited 13 January 2014 at 6:34PM
    •income under a personal pension scheme or retirement annuity scheme.

    This appears to relate to tax credits and I included it to illustrate the concept of "notional income" - also it is not wholly clear whether this would apply where the person had reached the age where the pension was actually payable ( rather than the situation where he could apply- take pension early etc). I was thinking of the case where a person has reached the retirement age for his pension scheme so that the income is properly due and payable - see the Age Concern leaflet on page 26.

    "Deprivation of income (notional income)
    Sometimes you may be treated as having income that you do not actually
    have. This is known as notional income. This might happen if you fail to apply
    for income you are entitled to, or if you have deliberately got rid of income

    with the intention of increasing your benefit entitlement. You should seek
    further advice if this rule is applied to you."


    There is also the concept of deprivation of capital which is also mentioned in the Age Concern leaflet - I think you might need to take advice on your particular circumstances.
  • xylophone
    xylophone Posts: 45,936 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper
    If you do that, then you will be using the open market option and the provider will need to honour the GMP. You may find some or all may not. It may be that you have to use the immediate vesting pension/transfer method which will lose the GMP but bring you to 25% tax free cash availability.

    An example here? http://www.mgmadviser.com/wp-content/uploads/2013/06/OMO-v-IVP-a-quick-reference-guide.pdf
This discussion has been closed.
Meet your Ambassadors

🚀 Getting Started

Hi new member!

Our Getting Started Guide will help you get the most out of the Forum

Categories

  • All Categories
  • 354K Banking & Borrowing
  • 254.3K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
  • 455.3K Spending & Discounts
  • 247.1K Work, Benefits & Business
  • 603.7K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
  • 178.3K Life & Family
  • 261.2K Travel & Transport
  • 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
  • 16.1K Discuss & Feedback
  • 37.7K Read-Only Boards

Is this how you want to be seen?

We see you are using a default avatar. It takes only a few seconds to pick a picture.