Council Tax

gav25

Hello. I'm not sure this is in the right place but it seemed the most relevant forum.

Way back in 2008, I shared a flat with a friend. His father rented the pub downstairs, the flat came with the pub. I was out of work at that time and claiming jobseekers.

After I moved out, I did continue to claim JSA from that address for a fair few months. Mainly because (and I know this is wrong) when changing address with the jobcentre, your claim is shut down for over a month while they change the details over.

Last week, I got a council tax bill for that property from 2008. It is for around 3 months. And I wasnt actually living there at the times it is for (however I wasn't registered elsewhere either as I was staying with friends and had no permanent address). My mate was still there then though. And the bill is for a single rate?

My question is..how would it be for single rate if there were two of us there? Could it be because I was just renting a room in his fathers property?

I know there is no way to prove I wasn't there at that time really as I screwed up majorly by not informing the jobcentre that I moved out. I just want to know how I can end up with a bill 5 years later which is for a single rate, when there were two of us living there.

We don't speak now so I can't really ask him about it. But is it possible that as his father was paying the council tax bill for the pub/flat, my friends CT came under that (with being family) whereas mine was classed as seperate because I just rented a room?

I will pay the bill obviously. Its the only debt I have and I hate being in debt. I just dont understand how its a single rate to be honest.

wegle

Unless you informed the council that the two of you were living there then it would only be in your name and the single rate applied.

It's your responsibility to inform the council when you leave an address and unless your friend is willing to talk with the council with you I think you will struggle to prove that you were not there.

The tax for the pub and for the flat are two completely different bills. The flat is a residential property and the pub is a business. Regardless that the flat and pub are owned by the same person and in the same building they are two completely seperate entities and you as the tenant of the flat were responsible for keeping the council informed during the time of your tenancy.

CIS

whereas mine was classed as seperate because I just rented a room?

Where you a joint tenant of the flat or did you just rent a room only ?

gav25

I rented a room.

He 'rented' a room but not the same, as it was his fathers property. I understand he would still have been liable for council tax though despite not actually paying rent.

CIS

I understand he would still have been liable for council tax though despite not actually paying rent.

As you didn't have the right to occupy the entire property and you only rented a room then you can't be held liable for the council tax.

The property would fall under the council tax definition of a House In Multiple Occupation and for which the landlord is legally responsible for the council tax payments.

gav25

What do you mean by occupy the entire property?

I was able to use the rooms.

Everywhere but his sons bedroom which was locked.

Also, is there a way to prove I am not liable? I never had a rent agreement or anything, I just paid cash.

CIS

I was able to use the rooms.

That's immaterial if you only paid rent for a room.

Also, is there a way to prove I am not liable?

Only if you can prove you had an agreement to rent a room.

gav25

I had no agreement at all really. I paid £25 a week to stay there while sorting myself out (was there about 2 months, but not actually the months when the debt is for)

Then stupidly never informed the council that I moved.