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Co-Ownership but Single Borrower
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TMT_2
Posts: 5 Forumite
I'm buying a property with somebody. However, I'm the majority earner and they only work part-time. As they don't earn that much, they're not keen on having the financial weight of a mortgage on their shoulders, but I want them as a co-owner of the property.
My question is, is it possible to have two owners on the title deeds to the property but the bank hold only one party liable for the mortgage repayments?
I'd really appreciate some advice regarding this.
Thank you.
My question is, is it possible to have two owners on the title deeds to the property but the bank hold only one party liable for the mortgage repayments?
I'd really appreciate some advice regarding this.
Thank you.
0
Comments
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Most banks will want the property to be in the same names as the mortgage.
So if you want the property in joint names, the mortgage would need to be in joint names.
You might find some lenders willing to proceed on the basis you describe - you'd need to ask prospective lenders, or get a broker to find a suitable lenderEarly retired - 18th December 2014
If your dreams don't scare you, they're not big enough0 -
I don't know any which will accept this.
It's a potential minefield in the vent of default.
How do they repossess and evict someone who owns the property, when that person isn't party to the mortgage?
It's one of the reasons a creditor can only register a restriction on a jointly owned property for a solely owed debt, not a charging order.I am a mortgage broker. You should note that this site doesn't check my status as a Mortgage Adviser, so you need to take my word for it. This signature is here as I follow MSE's Mortgage Adviser Code of Conduct. Any posts on here are for information and discussion purposes only and shouldn't be seen as financial advice. Please do not send PMs asking for one-to-one-advice, or representation.0 -
My question is, is it possible to have two owners on the title deeds to the property but the bank hold only one party liable for the mortgage repayments?
There's no contractual arrangement between the lender and the non mortgage party. So no grounds on which the lender could force the sale of the property to discharge the mortgage debt.0 -
Thank you for your responses so far.
Is there a type of agreement that can be made to agree that the non-borrowing party on the title deeds can still be evicted by the lender in order to repossess the property in the case of a default?0 -
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Thrugelmir wrote: »Yes be party to a mortgage.
Precisely the reason they exist.
Heh. You're correct, but that would still hold them jointly liable for the debt (i.e. if I default, they can chase them for the repayments rather than just me).
If an agreement stating the other party could still be evicted from the property (even though they're not liable for the debt), surely this would remove all risk for the lender?0 -
If an agreement stating the other party could still be evicted from the property (even though they're not liable for the debt), surely this would remove all risk for the lender?
In summary. Not worth the hassle for a lender. Demand for mortgage funds exceed supply. So lenders hold all the cards. Take it or leave it.0
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