Statute barred question

chicken-little_2

Hi all,

I have read that a statute barred (after 6 years) is only if
1) the lender hasnt persued you for long enough at the last address you gave them
2) that you havent acknowledged the debt

Can anyone confirm if -

1) the lender is the bank/company that you ORIGANALLY had the loan or whatever, or if its also including someone who has bought your debt and is now chasing it?

2) Is the last address you gave them mean it doesnt count if they are chasing you at a new address that you have not given them?

3) is there any way of finding out if a debt IS statute barred without acknowledging the debt?

4) Are you always informed if there is a ccj against you and how can you check?

Many thanks!

Heffi1

I can't answer them all, but if you have not acknowledged the debt or made a payment in a 6 year period then it is statute barred, this does not apply to CCJs though I think so it is best to check out.

chicken-little_2

Do they inform you if you get a ccj?

Heffi1

I am sorry I don't know anything about CCJs - someone will be along shortly to help though I am sure of it.

fermi

chicken-little wrote: »

I have read that a statute barred (after 6 years) is only if
1) the lender hasnt persued you for long enough at the last address you gave them

For starters, that in NOT true.

There are a number of websites that repeat that nonsense. It is complete guff.

A lender can write to you or your old address 1,000s of times. It would not prevent the debt becoming statute barred.

Only acknowledgement in writing by you, payment by you, or a CCJ being granted can do that.

Regards a CCJ, they are allowed to send papers for that to your last known address.

How would you know if you had one? You wouldn't if you don't get the paperwork.

How would you check?

If you check your credit files and make sure you give previous addresses when you do so, then it "should" show on there.

Otherwise you can check against your previous address here: www.trustonline.org.uk