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Hi guys

Just had my mortgage offer for the house I am buying, and on the last page there is a "condition" which says that my husband (the mortgage is in his name only) has declared he has outstanding credit and has declared he will repay this before completion.

He has no credit cards or loans. The only thing he has is an overdraft, and 2 joint overdrafts with me. Atm he is into his own overdraft by 50%, and not into the joint ones (though we sometimes do dip into them, and will be before completion due to some hefty charges we didn't expect)

Called the guy who set up our mortgage and he says if David has no outstanding loans or credit cards, then it must refer to our current mortgage as he has declared that as an outgoing on our form. He says it's definitely not the overdraft.

Does this sound right to you?
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