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Is APEX telling the truth?

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  • fermi
    fermi Posts: 40,542 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Combo Breaker Rampant Recycler
    I had several defaults settled - there were a couple of "silly" ones for smallish amounts which were "settled in full" and marked as such, but also a couple of larger ones, which weren't and showed as "part settled" but with the £0 outstanding balance.....

    Yep. Some people have even managed to get part settled ones marked as settled in full. Good if you can manage it, but as said acceptable if they will only record it as partial.
    Free/impartial debt advice: National Debtline | StepChange Debt Charity | Find your local CAB

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  • fermi
    fermi Posts: 40,542 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Combo Breaker Rampant Recycler
    edited 21 March 2012 at 11:19PM
    bargainbetty:

    Sorry for over analysing your post. :o No offence intended.

    Just trying to make things clear.
    Free/impartial debt advice: National Debtline | StepChange Debt Charity | Find your local CAB

    IVA & fee charging DMP companies: Profits from misery, motivated ONLY by greed
  • fermi
    fermi Posts: 40,542 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Combo Breaker Rampant Recycler
    on 1, I understand bb not to mean that the creditor will come back for another go, rather to be pointing out that people checking the credit record later eg for a mortgage may take a sterner view against a settlement marked as partial rather than unconditionally settled - hence to include this point in the negotiation.

    on 2, again, I think that the point is to get the settlement agreed in writing once it is negotiated.

    I don't agree. It doesn't read like that at all.

    1. States that marking as a partial settlement means it "could come back to haunt you".

    Then

    "It will also affect your report, as he indicated."


    i.e. the 1st point about it haunting you is not related to your credit reports. Otherwise wouldn't have said "also affect your report" in the next sentence.

    2. No. There is:

    "You must obtain a written agreement that the debt will be marked as fully settled"


    and

    "and the payment you send is in full and final settlement."

    Again, two clearly separate issues there.

    The first on how it should be marked. The 2nd on the liability re the settlement.

    The first clearly implying that you MUST have agreement that it will be marked as fully settled. Whereas, no, that is not always the case.

    Whether it was intended to mean that, only BB knows?

    But it does give that impression, whether you read it one way, or another, back to front, standing on your head, ad infinitum, I don't care.
    Free/impartial debt advice: National Debtline | StepChange Debt Charity | Find your local CAB

    IVA & fee charging DMP companies: Profits from misery, motivated ONLY by greed
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