Worked One Weeks Notice But No Pay

mercedes125

My hubby handed his notice in at work and worked the one weeks notice, he gets paid weekly but has not been paid any money at all so he has worked a week for nothing. He knows of another person and the same happened to them can surely this must be wrong, he might as well have not worked his notice if that is the case. will we able to claim anything from anywhere how can we live on nothing.
Thanks

Fran

Yes it is wrong, you can find info on the acas and dti websites.

Can he chase it up? I don't think he would be able to claim anything because they will say he should have been paid, whether he was or not. However, give the Jobcentre a ring tomorrow (I assume you have no income as you didn't mention any?). In any case you need to contact them if putting in a claim as it will be taken from the date you contact them.

liney

Are you 100% sure he hasn't been paid? We pay our payrol one week in arrears and am constantly asked about 'my week in hand' which doesnt exist when paid weekly in arrears. For example temp gets paid for week 1 on week 2. If you worked a week in hand then you wouldn't be paid until week 3. Just a thought.

Turning_into_scrooge

I remember working a week in hand and being paid on week 1

liney

The company wouldnt have your hours to process your wages in time to get to the bank on Friday as it takes 2 days by BaCs. Unless of course you worked for a very trusting company who issued you a cheque/cash before your hours were completed. The whole point of the 'week in hand' is that the very first week you work is kept aside and paid to you when you leave. If you had this money at the start, then you didn't work a week in hand.

mercedes125

Hi when hubby first started his job he worked the first week then got paid the following thursday so it was about 11days after starting. He worked his one week notice last week so he should have been paid today he has rang work up and they said because they have paid him holliday pay he is not entitled to his pay, he might as well have not worked his notice if thats the case.

suffolkb

If hubby has taken more holidays than he was entitled to pro-rata,then they are probably right.I.e - if he got 4 weeks hol a year,but took 3 weeks in 6 months,then he would owe them for the extra weeks hol.If he then left without working his notice,then they would be entitled to ask him for a weeks money.Could this be the case?

liney

Right. He is working one week in arrears, so yes he should have been paid for the work he did last week, this week. However they are entitled to take the holiday pay out of the last weeks wages as suffolb says. Also to persue him for money if he had just quit.

Do you know how many days he was entitled to per year, how many days he has taken, and when the holiday year runs from ? I can see if he has 'overspent'.