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help please with CGT

Would it be possible for someone to kindly do the numbers for this scenario please.

One of the owners of the house is not a British Citizen

The married couple's house was purchased in joint names 1986 for £46.000, £16.000 was deposit. The family lived in it for 2 years then went overseas for work. They returned and lived in the house for a few weeks each summer for about 4 years. They are still working overseas and the property is still let. They do not have another property. The property will sell probably for around £250,000 these days. What would be their CGT liability?


Purchased July 1986
Purhased for £46,000.00 Deposit £16,000
Date letting started September 1988


If sold Sep.2010 for example what would be the CGT liability?
OR if returned to live in property and sold in a number of years hence. thank you.

Comments

  • fengirl_2
    fengirl_2 Posts: 4,530 Forumite
    If the owners are both still non-resident when they sell, they will not be liable to CGT.
    £705,000 raised by client groups in the past 18 mths :beer:
  • voyagerbear
    voyagerbear Posts: 85 Forumite
    Thank you,

    does that still apply if one of the parties stayed in UK for a two year period during that time but went back overseas again.
  • fengirl_2
    fengirl_2 Posts: 4,530 Forumite
    As long as they have been non-resident for 5 yrs since that visit.-
    £705,000 raised by client groups in the past 18 mths :beer:
  • Raggs_2
    Raggs_2 Posts: 760 Forumite
    Tenth Anniversary 500 Posts Combo Breaker
    Would they be liable for taxes in the country of residence though?
  • fengirl_2
    fengirl_2 Posts: 4,530 Forumite
    They might - it depends on the laws of that country.
    £705,000 raised by client groups in the past 18 mths :beer:
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