Who owns the house?

alona1

Hi all,

Bit of a complicated one this.

My Dad bought (lump sum cash) my Gdads house for them back in 1995 (was a council house at the time). On the title deeds it shows my Dad as the lender and & my Gparents as the borrowers. (They never paid any rent or anything to my Dad)

My GParents have now passed and family are trying to claim for the house. My GParents re-assured us that everything was correct for my Dad receiving the house once they passed. However the will was never signed.

Do the title deeds stand for my Dad to receive the house?

Thanks

RobertoMoir

Sorry for your loss.
I think your dad needs to speak to a solicitor urgently. We can chat about the issue you describe here all day and all night but for an issue like this proper legal advice is going to be required sooner or later. Sooner would be better imho.

alona1

I'm currently waiting for a call back from the solicitor...

Jonbvn

If your father is shown as the lender on the house, then he has a charge on it and it should belong to him. Your dad needs legal advice on this.

getmore4less

Jonbvn wrote: »

If your father is shown as the lender on the house, then he has a charge on it and it should belong to him. Your dad needs legal advice on this.

Surly that is just registering a debt that need to be repaid before it can be sold by the actual owner.

alona1

Jonbvn wrote: »

If your father is shown as the lender on the house, then he has a charge on it and it should belong to him. Your dad needs legal advice on this.

Yeah he is showing as having a charge under the property.

getmore4less

You will need a solicitor but you can help by understanding some of the background to probate.

Who is/are the executor? They are the ones that will be dealing with the issue.

Is there a will or is this intestate?

alona1

There is a will but wasnt signed where my Dad and his sister were executors. But there is a 'blood' son who might try to contest it...