Default for unproven debt?

v8monkeyboy

Hi all,

I have checked both my husband's and my credit reports, and I saw on his that he had a default for an old 02 account. The default was registered in 2007.

Now, the only thing we know about this is that we had a letter from Lowell/Red (?) late last year stating that £39 was outstanding to 02. We replied with the 'prove it letter' and have never heard anything since.

Now, if Lowell's can't prove that the debt is outstanding and 02 didn't contact my husband about it, can they register a default if they can't prove the debt?

Thanks!

Tracy

Tixy

You would need to request it be removed. But if o2 are able to prove the debt exists and that a default notice was issued then they do not have to remove it (and you'd need to pay the debt).

Or you could try negotiating with o2 to pay the debt if they remove the default - http://forums.moneysavingexpert.com/showpost.html?p=30356419&postcount=27 (not sure how successful that is likely to be though)

v8monkeyboy

Thanks Tixy,

If he does owe it, then I am happy to pay, and at least it would show on the credit report as satisfied. However, since the 'prove it letter' all has gone quiet, making it seem that they can't prove the debt. This is the reason I was asking whether they can default for an unrpoven debt.

Should we write to O2? Or Lowells?

TIA,

T x

Tixy

Well the default was obviously added before you asked them for proof, so they certainly could have done at that point in time.

If o2 entered the default they are the people who could remove it.

Lowells may have decided it wasn't worth trying to obtain proof from vodaphone given the amount involved and the effort it would take them.