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Buying one half of a mortgage free house?

Hi all,

hoping for some advice.

long story short myself and my partner were looking to buy a house unfortunatley we were unable to secure the mortgage we needed. she still has the oppotunity to buy this house with her brother (mortgage free). with her and her brother being on the title deeds. (i would have no ownership of the house)


In the future
Her brother is looking to move away and would like to sell the house (2/3 years). I wish to buy the property at this time however this would require a mortgage. Is it possible for me to get a mortgage with my partner to buy the equity her brother owns without having to pay stamp duty / tax?

or are their alternatives to get around this?

Thanks for your comments

Comments

  • jwil
    jwil Posts: 23,502 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper Photogenic
    Hi Craig,

    My husband and I have just done this. He owned a property with his brother (no mortgage), and we bought him out. It is called transfer of equity. We went through a mortgage broker in the same way as you normally would, and they class it as a remortgage. We had to pay additional solicitors fees as it was not a standard purchase, but otherwise it was straightforward, and took about 3 weeks from the time we received the mortgage offer.

    As long as the amount you are paying your partner's brother is less than the stamp duty threshold, you won't have to pay it.

    HTH Jwil
    "Good financial planning is about not spending money on things that add no value to your life in order to have more money for the things that do". Eoin McGee
  • phlash
    phlash Posts: 883 Forumite
    500 Posts
    In response to jwil...

    It is easy to 'do' as you have pointed out, but its not so easy to get it 'right'.

    There is a way around stamp duty.....if her brother gifts you the share of the house. i.e. You pay nothing for it, but I doubt thats going to be a reasonable solution.
    http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/sdlt/transaction/transfer-ownership.htm

    Her brother would pay CGT on sale of his share of the property, there would be no PPR relief.
    http://www.direct.gov.uk/en/MoneyTaxAndBenefits/Taxes/TaxOnPropertyAndRentalIncome/DG_4020890

    You may want to think about how the property is owned...
    1) Tenancy in common
    2) Joint tenants
    They are very different, and I suggest you probably want option 1, but most people I believe would end up with option 2 if they didn't think about it.
    http://www.elderlawanswers.com/resources/article.asp?id=5842&section=4

    Ciao

    Phlash
    I can take no responsibility for the use of any free comments given, any actions taken are the sole decision of the individual in question after consideration of my free comments.
    That also means I cannot share in any profits from any decisions made!;)
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