Council Tax questions - help appreciated!

gargrave50

Hi all, I generally post on the debt free wannabe board, however thought you lovely people might be more knowledgeable with this enquiry.

I now work in London but my family live in Glasgow so I commute home when I can for a few days. My question is as my husband is the only adult resident in the house, can he apply for a single person discount as I am resident elsewhere (Borough of Hillingdon) and can provide my letting agreement as proof that my main residence is elsewhere?

I'm just not clear on whether we would be entitled to apply for this? Thank you all in advance:D

yummymummy79

Unless things have changed in the last few years (since I worked in CT) then it does hinge on 'sole or main residence'. Although you have a letting agreement for the London house, I would personally have doubts that a property other than your family home would be classed as your main residence. It may depend on things like how many days you spend at each, but it may be a case of him applying for it and you having to state your best case as to why the London home is your main residence when it is not your family home.

CIS

The principles regarding 'Sole or Main Residence' still apply. I would agreed with yummymummy79 that , if you came in my office, that I would reagrd your home in Glasgow as your 'Sole or Main Residence' and as so no Single Person Discount could be claimed at that property as there are 2 or more people occupying the property as their 'sole or main residence'.

A tenancy agreememt is not proof of residence, all it shows is that you hold a tenancy on the property. A person can hold as many tenancys as they like on various properies without the property being their 'sole or main residence'.

You need to contact your local authority in London and request that they apply the applicable second home discount for your Council Tax.

gargrave50

Thanks to you both - as I suspected but perhaps worth applying like yummymummy suggests and putting my case forward!