I purchased a property in 2009. there was a small plot of land at the rear which was being used by the previous owner (Mr A) and two neighbours with the permission of the land owner (mr B). over the years a dispute has arisen between us and a local person ( mr C) who puts his horses on the land to graze and keeps on removing fencing we erect to stop the horses gaining access to our gardens. recently we were informed that he has been granted possessory title to the land as he told land registry he has used the land exclusively for 12 years and the land owner (mr B) did not contest this application. I then obtained a copy of the registry for the new owner (mr C) and the previous land owner (mr B) and both were only possessory. when I bought the house there was a lot of paperwork and title deeds given to me. I have looked through these and it seems like the house and land was sold to previous owners in 1987 by Mr B's mother and then they sold it in 1995 to Mr A. the previous land owner (mr B) applied for possessory title in 1998. the question I am asking is if I hold the title deeds and in them it includes the land and the house can I apply for title absolute for the land that Mr C has possessory title to? its a bit long winded but do I own the land if I have the title?