The words make perfect sense. I am afraid the content doesn't altogether!
I assume that the transfer of employers was not a TUPE. That isn't clear from what you say, and I can't be clear on that unless I know what "bought out" means - asset transfer or a share takeover. I am assuming the latter because otherwise it makes even less sense - but I may be wrong.
So he is redundant. And he gets redundancy pay. That is clear. Assuming all of the above assumptions are correct! I then assume that he's been offered a new job - so yes, it is correct that the RPS would not pay notice pay if he gets a new job (or they would deduct JSA whether he claimed it or not). If the RPS know he has been offered another job and has refused it - no, they will not pay the notice pay. This is a government fund, paid for by taxpayers - they won't pay anything unless they absolutely have to. Does that make sense, and have I got any assumptions wrong?