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Credit checking prospective landlords
Comments
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If the landlord has a mortgage, there is a requirement by the mortgage lender to have buildings insurance.
In the event of arrears, the mortgage lender would send someone to visit the property before baliffs turned up with a repossession order. In any case, letters would appear to notify the tenant, either because the landlord has a BTL mortgage and so the lender knows there are tenants or because the landlord is assumed to live at the address on a residential mortgage. Either way a tenant wouldn't first find out that the property was being repossessed on the day in question by baliffs appearing - that is just scaremongering nonsense.
My mate's LL was letting without mortgager's permission and had royal mail redirection - so mortgage company reposessed - ok they got 5 days warning from balliffs turning up but that was it. Only comeback was to sue LL who of course was going bust. Tenancy invalid as no permission to let by owner (i.e. the bank - essentially since they not LL owned he was just some third party with no right to let.0 -
barnaby-bear wrote: »Tenancy invalid as no permission to let by owner (i.e. the bank - essentially since they not LL owned he was just some third party with no right to let.
But presumably a credit check on the LL would not reveal this. I agree that if the lender requires the LL to get permission to let and that is not obtained, then potentially the tenancy agreement is invalid, from the Lender's point of view.
But if the lender's permission is granted, then surely, if the LL goes bankrupt, then the agreement is valid so 2 month's notice is required to evict the tenant
Essentially, the lender becomes the LL and has to honour the tenancy agreement. If so, then the tenant is no worse off as the original LL could have given notice to quit, even if he'd not gone bankrupt
Warning ..... I'm a peri-menopausal axe-wielding maniac
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Debt_Free_Chick wrote: »But presumably a credit check on the LL would not reveal this. I agree that if the lender requires the LL to get permission to let and that is not obtained, then potentially the tenancy agreement is invalid, from the Lender's point of view.
But if the lender's permission is granted, then surely, if the LL goes bankrupt, then the agreement is valid so 2 month's notice is required to evict the tenant
Essentially, the lender becomes the LL and has to honour the tenancy agreement. If so, then the tenant is no worse off as the original LL could have given notice to quit, even if he'd not gone bankrupt 
You're right a credit check won't cover the mortgage type, but you notice Q3 covers the mortgage.
I'm not sure if the lender does take over the LL responsibilities though."Mrs. Pench, you've won the car contest, would you like a triumph spitfire or 3000 in cash?" He smiled.
Mrs. Pench took the money. "What will you do with it all? Not that it's any of my business," he giggled.
"I think I'll become an alcoholic," said Betty.0 -
Wouldn't it just be easier and cheaper to give the tenant basic security of tenure if the house is reposessed? Say a month or something.0
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Debt_Free_Chick wrote: »But presumably a credit check on the LL would not reveal this. I agree that if the lender requires the LL to get permission to let and that is not obtained, then potentially the tenancy agreement is invalid, from the Lender's point of view.
But if the lender's permission is granted, then surely, if the LL goes bankrupt, then the agreement is valid so 2 month's notice is required to evict the tenant
Essentially, the lender becomes the LL and has to honour the tenancy agreement. If so, then the tenant is no worse off as the original LL could have given notice to quit, even if he'd not gone bankrupt 
If the lender's permission was granted it isn't potentially invalid it's completely NON-EXISTENT - tenants need to know permission to let has been granted and few realise that the tenancy doesn't exist if no lender's permission.0 -
1) Yes
2) £50 maximum
3) Yes
4) Probably
I don't rent anymore but agree there should be tighter regulation of LLs.
I have been evicted from a flat which it turned out the LL did NOT own...he was subletting his council flat.
And I have been evicted because the LL was not declaring she was renting & admitted that she was worried because the council was making door-to-door checks & she needed to make considerable structural changes to bring the accommodation in line with regs.
I've never felt that renting was dead money, but it used to make me mad that LLs did not think they should pay tax on their rental income.0 -
Debt_Free_Chick wrote: »Struggling to understand why a tenant would want to credit check the LL - is this just to show that any mortgage on the property is up to date?

So that they know that the building is not about to be repossessed by the lender, this happened to me!The "Bloodlust" Clique - Morally equal to all. Member 10
grocery challenge...Budget £420
Wk 1 £27.10
Wk 2 £78.06
Wk 3 £163.06
Wk 40 -
Debt_Free_Chick wrote: »But if the lender's permission is granted, then surely, if the LL goes bankrupt, then the agreement is valid so 2 month's notice is required to evict the tenant
Essentially, the lender becomes the LL and has to honour the tenancy agreement. If so, then the tenant is no worse off as the original LL could have given notice to quit, even if he'd not gone bankrupt 
Wrong. Whether or not the landlord has permission to let, if the mortgage is not paid the lender can repossess. The lender does not become the landlord. The landlord repossesses the property and the tenant is evicted. The tenant would have to sue the landlord for breach of contract - a bit pointless if the landlord is broke.
All a BTL mortgage does is acknowledge the greater risk in commercial lending than residential mortgages and therefore costs a bit more. From a tenants point of view, it means the lender is aware that there is a tenant in situ.I'm a Forum Ambassador on the housing, mortgages & student money saving boards. I volunteer to help get your forum questions answered and keep the forum running smoothly. Forum Ambassadors are not moderators and don't read every post. If you spot an illegal or inappropriate post then please report it to forumteam@moneysavingexpert.com (it's not part of my role to deal with this). Any views are mine and not the official line of MoneySavingExpert.com.0 -
silvercar, It is you who is persistently wrong on this repossession issue - you seem totally unable to read and comprehend information on this matter yet continue spreading old wives tales.
The basics are it DOES matter if the landlord has permission to let from the lender.
Without this permission the tenancy agreement is invalid and the tenant can be chucked out. This can and DOES happen with little or no notice, an example is here:
http://www.landlordzone.co.uk/forums/showpost.php?p=41015&postcount=1
So bailiffs on the doorstep isn't scaremongering. Even if the landlord isn't re-directing post, many tenants would not open the landlord's mail so could easily be unaware of what's going on.
If the landlord has permission to let from the lender (either specific written permission for a normal mortgage or having a BTL mortgage that allows letting) the tenant does have the protection of the tenancy agreement. What this means in practise depends on the details such as if the tenant was in-situ before the mortgage was taken out. But worst case it would mean the tenant is given two months notice to leave under section 8 ground 2 after which there would need to be a court application for possession. Although section 8 ground 2 allows for the two months notice to expire before the end of the fixed term that's a heck of a lot better for the tenant than little or no notice so the tenant SHOULD make sure there is permission to let from the landlord's lender. I trust you will stop denying this now!
Links for more information:
"Most mortgages have a condition that the property cannot be let without the prior written consent of the lender. Landlords should always seek the consent of the lender before letting their property.
This is important because any tenancies granted without the consent of the lender and after the date the mortgage was taken out will not protect the tenant(s) against the lender. "
http://www.compactlaw.co.uk/free_legal_information/private_housing/privhf14.html
"For ground 2, the Landlord must give two months notice."
"Ground 2
The property is subject to a mortgage and the mortgagees are repossessing the property to enforce the charge. Written notice should be given before or at the time the tenancy begins that possession may be required under this ground. (The court can sometimes allow possession under this ground even if no notice is given)."
http://www.compactlaw.co.uk/free_legal_information/private_housing/privhf2.html
"However, you may have the right to stay in the property if one of the following applies:
* You were already living in the property when the owner purchased it (you were a 'sitting tenant'), or when they took out a second mortgage;
* You moved in after your landlord took out the mortgage, but the lender agreed to the tenancy;"
http://www.thesite.org/homelawandmoney/askthesiteqandas/housingqandas/repossessionrights0 -
PS The other interesting post on that landlord zone thread is this one:
http://www.landlordzone.co.uk/forums/showpost.php?p=41210&postcount=19
as the OP gives an update on what happened.0
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