Selling beneficial interest to spouse - house in spouse's sole name

Hi all,

Found lots of helpful info on here over the years but can't quite find a definitive answer to my question in my research so thought I'd post up!

10 years ago I defaulted on multiple credit agreements (combination of having too much money as an early-20 year old, being irresponsible with my borrowing, and then losing my job). Anyway, they have all dropped of the credit rating and in a way have fallen into the abyss! 2 of them are over the £5k mark that COULD see the creditor be able to petition the court for bankruptcy. I say COULD as I've heard nothing from one of them for nearly 4 years (no idea if they even still own it!), and the other was sold on. but I believe it to be unenforceable due to them not having the correct paperwork - they will both become statute barred in 2.5 years time. So whilst it doesn't look likely that they will try to bankrupt me, I don't want to take any chances with regards to my wife's house and feel like I need to take some defensive action. N.B. I've used briefing paper CBP5271 as the basis of the following logic, however I may very well have misinterpreted it so please forgive me if that is the case!

Fast-forward to now..........married with 2 kids and no longer an irresponsible fool (lessons learnt by growing up, having no money, as well as not having access to credit for over 6 years!). The house in which I live is in my wife's sole name; she bought it 4 years ago from the council on the RTB scheme (we were together at the time), but as the tenancy was in her sole name, the discount given (which also formed the deposit for the purchase) was in her sole name also. Also, given my poor credit history from the defaults (these debts were accrued way before we met btw), she was the only one on the mortgage, and has been ever since. However, I accept that I MAY have accrued some beneficial interest in the property given that I will have contributed to bills etc. Things get complicated as we used to bank jointly so its hard to prove whose money paid for what, so I just want to think worst case scenario and assume that I do have BI to avoid any grey areas. I am now unemployed and have no source of income; my wife is currently the "bread-winner" as I am now studying, and it will be as such for the next 3 years. So, my thinking is that from this point on, my contribution being £0, I will accrue no further BI, and this will all be easy to document, especially given that we now bank separately. But I am still worried about any BI that I will have accrued in the last 4 years. What I would like to do is have my wife buy my beneficial interest in the property, rendering me with nothing, and I wish to do this now, IN CASE anything happened; I believe that if I were to wait and any of the creditors did attempt to make me bankrupt, this would not be possible at that point as an OR would look at the transaction as evasive; so a transaction way before the potential event seems to be sensible to me; are there any flaws in this logic? Just to be clear, I am not talking about an undervalue transaction; there would be actual money involved at the correct value. Also, I just want to re-iterate that I myself have no intention of filing for bankruptcy, this is in case a creditor were to attempt to bankrupt me, and of course all would be done with no provable foresight of a bankruptcy.

I'm wondering how we go about legally and officially doing this so that it can never be in question at a later date. Also, I am wondering how on earth my BI would be calculated.

Sorry about the long-windedness of this question, any help much appreciated!